ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 9

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 9

QUESTIONS

Q-1. ____________ is a reason why testing is necessary. Select all that apply.

a. Improve software processes to increase software quality.

b. Provide IT consultant training to improve software quality.

c. Prevent the existence of defects in shipped products.

d. Identify bugs in support of the concept of phase containment.

e. Confirm a product works.


Q-2. Which of the following are characteristics of debugging? Select all that apply.

a. The process takes place before and after program is compiled.

b. The process identifies and corrects the root cause of a defect.

c. The process includes regression testing.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-3. Which of the following is a test planning activity? Select all that apply.

a. Create test schedule.

b. Specify test milestones.

c. Identify test activities.

d. Specify test environment requirements.

e. Specify reporting metrics.


Q-4. Which of the following is the definition of a fault? Select all that apply.

a. An event in which a system is unsuccessful in performing a required function within a specified limit.

b. A defect that causes software to behave in unexpected and unplanned-for ways.

c. A mistake that’s committed at some point in the software life cycle.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-5. Which of the following is a test implementation activity? Select all that apply.

a. Identify test data.

b. Prioritize test cases.

c. Perform static analysis of test basis.

d. Adjust test plan according to evaluation of test basis.

e. Evaluate testability of test basis.


Q-6. What factor is the major determinant of whether or not static analysis tools are used?

a. The identification of areas of code that are at risk of having design defects.

b. The determination of whether or not code complies with organizational rules.

c. The generation of code metrics.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-7. What is a possible benefit of automated static testing?

a. Shorten the test cycle.

b. Increase the accuracy of test results.

c. Decrease the size of the test team.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-8. Identify a definition of failure.

a. The result of an error.

b. A system’s departure from a specified behavior.

c. An incorrect step, process or data definition.

d. A human action that leads to an incorrect processing result.


Q-9: Which of the following is a primary objective of the review of a requirements specification?

a. To confirm a requirement is traceable to a business need.

b. To confirm a requirement is testable and uniquely identifiable.

c. To confirm a requirement is traceable to a business need, testable and uniquely identifiable.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-10. How does an inspection differ from a walkthrough?

a. An inspection is led by the work product’s author and a walkthrough is led by the author’s peer.

b. An inspection is led by a moderator and a walkthrough by the work product’s author.

c. An inspection is led by the work product’s author and a walkthrough by a trained moderator.

d. A walkthrough is led by the work product’s author and the inspection by a test manager.


Q-11. If realized, a risk results in _____________________? Select all that apply.

a. A variation in an anticipated project outcome.

b. A negative variation in performance against plan.

c. A variation in a planned project approach.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-12. A risk level is determined by what? Select all that apply.

a. The root cause of an event.

b. The probability that a root cause will lead to a negative outcome.

c. The negative impact in terms of performance, schedule or cost.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-13. Identify a valid category of project risk. Select all that apply.

a. Supplier factors.

b. Organizational factors.

c. Technical factors.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-14. A list of product and project risks has been developed during test planning. What might be a next step? Select all that apply.

a. Determine the test effort required to mitigate product risks.

b. Develop a plan to mitigate project risks.

c. Eliminate the root cause of a project risk.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-15. Identify the way in which a tester’s independence is impaired. Select all that apply.

a. The tester has an indirect interest in providing a negative assessment of a work product’s quality.

b. The tester has an indirect interest in providing a positive assessment of a work product’s quality.

c. Both a. and b.

d. Neither a. nor b.


Q-16. What factor is the major determinant of the quality of tool support?

a. Vendor guidelines for the acquisition, implementation and support of automated tools.

b. The incorporation of lessons learned in tool acquisition policies and procedures.

c. The incorporation of the tool in the development organization’s SDLC processes.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-17. What are the primary principles for introducing a tool to an organization?

a. Evaluate the vendor’s cost models.

b. Calculate the tool’s cost/benefit ratio.

c. Evaluate a tool’s effectiveness considering the existing infrastructure.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-18. Classify a test tool according to its purpose.

a. Specialized needs.

b. Performance measurement and dynamic management.

c. Test execution and logging.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. ____________ is a reason why testing is necessary. Select all that apply.

a. Improve software processes to increase software quality.

b. Provide IT consultant training to improve software quality.

c. Prevent the existence of defects in shipped products.

d. Identify bugs in support of the concept of phase containment.

e. Confirm a product works.

A-1: a. Improve software processes to increase software quality. (FL 1.2.1) (LO 1.1.3) (LO 1 Q-41)


Q-2. Which of the following are characteristics of debugging? Select all that apply.

a. The process takes place before and after program is compiled.

b. The process identifies and corrects the root cause of a defect.

c. The process includes regression testing.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-2: b. The process identifies and corrects the root cause of a defect. and c. The process includes regression testing.

(FL 1.1.2) (LO 1.2.3) (LO 1 Q-42)


Q-3. Which of the following is a test planning test activity? Select all that apply.

a. Create test schedule.

b. Specify test milestones.

c. Identify test activities.

d. Specify test environment requirements.

e. Specify reporting metrics.

A-3: a. Create test schedule. and e. Specify reporting metrics. (FL 1.4.2) (LO 1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-43)

Q-4. Which of the following is the definition of a fault? Select all that apply.

a. An event in which a system is unsuccessful in performing a required function within a specified limit.

b. A defect that causes software to behave in unexpected and unplanned-for ways.

c. A mistake that’s committed at some point in the software life cycle.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-4: b. A defect that causes software to behave in unexpected and unplanned-for ways. (FL 1.2.3) (LO 1.1.5) (LO 1 Q-44)


Q-5. Which of the following is a test implementation activity? Select all that apply.

a. Identify test data.

b. Prioritize test cases.

c. Perform static analysis of test basis.

d. Adjust test plan according to evaluation of test basis.

e. Evaluate testability of test basis.

A-5: a. Identify test data. and b. Prioritize test cases. (FL 1.4.2) (LO 1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-45)


Q-6. What factor is the major determinant of whether or not static analysis tools are used?

a. The identification of areas of code that are at risk of having design defects.

b. The determination of whether or not code complies with organizational rules.

c. The generation of code metrics.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-6: d. All of the above. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.3.3) (LO 3 Q-41)


Q-7. What is a possible benefit of automated static testing?

a. Shorten the test cycle.

b. Increase the accuracy of test results.

c. Decrease the size of the test team.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-7: d. All of the above. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.1.2) (LO 3 Q-42)


Q-8. Identify a definition of failure.

a. The result of an error.

b. A system’s departure from a specified behavior.

c. An incorrect step, process or data definition.

d. A human action that leads to an incorrect processing result.

A-8: b. A system’s departure from a specified behavior. (FL 3.1.1) (LO 3.1.1) (LO 1 Q-43)


Q-9. Which of the following is a primary objective of the review of a requirements specification?

a. To confirm a requirement is traceable to a business need.

b. To confirm a requirement is testable and uniquely identifiable.

c. To confirm a requirement is traceable to a business need, testable and uniquely identifiable.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-9: d. All of the above. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-44)


Q-10. How does an inspection differ from a walkthrough?

a. An inspection is led by the work product’s author and a walkthrough is led by the author’s peer.

b. An inspection is led by a moderator and a walkthrough by the work product’s author.

c. An inspection is led by the work product’s author and a walkthrough by a trained moderator.

d. A walkthrough is led by the work product’s author and the inspection by a test manager.

A-10: b. An inspection is led by a moderator and a walkthrough by the work product’s author. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (LO 3 Q-40)


Q-11. If realized, a risk results in _____________________? Select all that apply.

a. A variation in an anticipated project outcome.

b. A negative variation in performance against plan.

c. A variation in a planned project approach.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-11: a. A variation in an anticipated project outcome. and c. A variation in a planned project approach. (FL 5.5.1) (LO 5.5.1) (FL 5 Q-41)


Q-12. A risk level is determined by what? Select all that apply.

a. The root cause of an event.

b. The probability that a root cause will lead to a negative outcome.

c. The negative impact in terms of performance, schedule or cost.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-12: b. The probability that a root cause will lead to a negative outcome. and c. The negative impact in terms of performance, schedule or cost. (FL 5.5.1) (LO 5.5.2) (LO 5 Q-42)


Q-13. Identify a valid category of project risk. Select all that apply.

a. Supplier factors.

b. Organizational factors.

c. Technical factors.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-13: d. All of the above. (FL 5.5.3) (LO 5.5.4) (LO 5 Q-43)

Q-14. A list of product and project risks has been developed during test planning. What might be a next step? Select all that apply.

a. Determine the test effort required to mitigate product risks.

b. Develop a plan to mitigate project risks.

c. Eliminate the root cause of a project risk.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-14: d. All of the above. (FL 5.5.3) (LO 5.5.5) (LO 5 Q-44)

Q-15. Identify the way in which a tester’s independence is impaired. Select all that apply.

a. The tester has an indirect interest in providing a negative assessment of a work product’s quality.

b. The tester has an indirect interest in providing a positive assessment of a work product’s quality.

c. Both a. and b.

d. Neither a. nor b.

A-15: c. Both a. and b. (FL 5.1.1) ( LO 5.1.1) (LO 5 Q-40)


Q-16. What factor is the major determinant of the quality of tool support?

a. Vendor guidelines for the acquisition, implementation and support of automated tools.

b. The incorporation of lessons learned in tool acquisition policies and procedures.

c. The incorporation of the tool in the development organization’s SDLC processes.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-16: b. The incorporation of lessons learned in tool acquisition policies and procedures. (FL 6.2.3) (LO 6.3.3) (LO 6 Q-41)

Q-17. What are the primary principles for introducing a tool to an organization?

a. Evaluate the vendor’s cost models.

b. Calculate the tool’s cost/benefit ratio.

c. Evaluate a tool’s effectiveness considering the existing infrastructure.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: b. Calculate the tool’s cost/benefit ration. and c. Evaluate a tool’s effectiveness considering the existing infrastructure. (FL 6.2.1) (LO 6.3.1) (LO 6 Q-42)


Q-18. Classify a test tool according to its purpose.

a. Specialized needs.

b. Performance measurement and dynamic management.

c. Test execution and logging.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-18: B. Performance measurement and dynamic management. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-43)

Subscribe

ASTQB Quiz CENTRAL is not associated with either ASTQB.org or ISTQB.org.