ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 6

2Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 6

QUESTIONS

Q-1. Which of the following is the best explanation of why testing is necessary? Select all that apply.

a. Evaluate software processes to improve software quality.

b. Provide employee training to improve software quality.

c. Confirm a product adheres to relevant standards.

d. Identify bugs in support of the concept of phase containment.

e. All of the above.

f. None of the above.


Q-2. Module is an example of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Test level.

b. Objective of testing.

c. An element of a product’s risk level calculation.

d. One focus of software quality control.

e. Test target.


Q-3. Which of the following is synonymous with test object? Select all that apply.

a. Test target.

b. Module.

c. Supply chain transaction.

d. A system’s risk level.

e. Bug.


Q-4. Which of the following is a testing objective for integration testing? Select all that apply.

a. Verify a system’s physical design.

b. Verify installed software works as expected.

c. Verify multiple variations of a program are executed using identical inputs.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-5. Which of the following best describes the term “defect?” Select all that apply.

a. A condition that deviates from an expected one, which is described in a requirements specification or another test basis.

b. The result of a human mistake that’s committed at some point in the software life cycle.

c. An imperfection in a work product that causes it to fail to meet its requirements.

d. An event in which a system is unsuccessful in performing a required function within a specified limit.

e. An imperfection or deficiency in a work product that causes it to fail to meet its requirements.


Q-6. What activity is required to evaluate a web page?

a. Dynamic analysis.

b. Static analysis.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.


Q-7. Identify true statements about an inspection.

  • Trained moderator
  • No pre-meeting preparations
  • Formal follow-up
  • Defect Identification

A. False, True, False, False

B. True, False, True, True

C. False, True, False, False

D. False, False, True. False


Q-8. In which software development life cycle phase(s) is static testing used?

a. Requirements.

b. Design.

c. Coding.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-9. Which of the following are verification activities performed during a product’s design?

a. Reviews and inspections.

b. Inspections and testing.

c. Reviews and testing.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-10. What is the best way to describe how static analysis techniques compare to dynamic techniques?

a. Static techniques identify defects and dynamic techniques identify suspicious areas of code that require investigation.

b. Dynamic techniques identify defects as well as suspicious areas of code that require investigation.

c. Dynamic techniques identify defects and static techniques identify suspicious areas of code that require investigation.

d. None of the above.


Q-11. Identify a test execution metric. Select all that apply.

a. Percentage of planned-for test preparation effort that’s complete.

b. Confidence in the product under test.

c. Testing costs to date.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-12. Which of the following may influence project risk? Select all that apply.

a. The development process.

b. The organization.

c. The work environment.

d. Technology.

e. Suppliers.


Q-13. During what phase of the test process are stakeholders consulted so the appropriate tests are created? Select all that apply.

a. Test analysis and design.

b. Test planning and control.

c. Test implementation and execution.


Q-14. What is a characteristic of the consultative test approach? Select all that apply.

a. The bug-hunting strategy used bug profiles.

b. Stakeholders may disagree as to the conditions to be tested.

c. An industry standard determines the test cases to be executed.


Q-15. Identify a valid entry criterion for unit testing. Select all that apply.

a. The unit is subject to formal configuration control.

b. Functional requirements are complete.

c. Testable code is available.


Q-16. What activity is required to complete the multi-stage test automation process?

a. Define the business objectives that a test tool will support.

b. Evaluate alternative forms of tool support.

c. Coach and mentor the entire test team in the use and maintenance of test tools.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-17. What determines how successful the implementation of a test tool will be?

a. A revision of test processes to accommodate the test tool’s requirements.

b. The incorporation of lessons learned regarding test tool use in a test organization’s policies and procedures.

c. The training of the entire project team in how the tool supports the test project’s objectives.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-18. What model can used to introduce a test tool to an organization?

a. Cost/benefit analysis.

b. Lessons learned.

c. Pilot project.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-19. What information should be gathered during a pilot project for management to consider when deciding if a test tool should be adopted?

a. The support for the tool in terms of current procedures and documentation.

b. The test tool’s probable use in the organization’s processes.

c. The benefits that can be achieved by using the tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-20. How is the application life cycle management tool classified?

a. Static testing tool.

b. Test management tool.

c. Test design and implementation tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. Which of the following is the best explanation of why testing is necessary? Select all that apply.

a. Evaluate software processes to improve software quality.

b. Provide employee training to improve software quality.

c. Confirm a product adheres to relevant standards.

d. Identify bugs in support of the concept of phase containment.

e. All of the above.

f. None of the above.

A-1: c. Confirm a product adheres to relevant standards. (FL 1.2.1) (LO1.1.3) (LO 1 Q-26)


Q-2. Module is an example of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Test level.

b. Objective of testing.

c. An element of a product’s risk level calculation.

d. One focus of software quality control.

e. Test target.

A-2: e. Test target. (FL 1.2.1) (LO 1.2.1) (LO 1 Q-27)


Q-3. Which of the following is synonymous with test object? Select all that apply.

a. Test target.

b. Module.

c. Supply chain transaction.

d. A system’s risk level.

e. Bug.

A-3: a. Test target. (FL 1.2.2) (LO1.2.2) (LO 1 Q-28)


Q-4. Which of the following is a testing objective for integration testing? Select all that apply.

a. Verify a system’s physical design.

b. Verify installed software works as expected.

c. Verify multiple variations of a program are executed using identical inputs.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-4: a. Verify a system’s physical design. (FL 1.1.1) (LO1.2.2) (LO 1 Q-29)


Q-5. Which of the following best describes the term “defect?” Select all that apply.

a. A condition that deviates from an expected one, which is described in a requirements specification or another test basis.

b. The result of a human mistake that’s committed at some point in the software life cycle.

c. An imperfection in a work product that causes it to fail to meet its requirements.

d. An event in which a system is unsuccessful in performing a required function within a specified limit.

e. An imperfection or deficiency in a work product that causes it to fail to meet its requirements.

A-5: e. An imperfection or deficiency in a work product that causes it to fail to meet its requirements. (FL 1.2.3) (LO 1.1.5) (LO 1 Q-30)


Q-6. What activity is required to evaluate a web page?

a. Dynamic analysis.

b. Static analysis.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

A-6: b. Static analysis. (FL 3.1.1) (LO 3.1.2) (LO 3 Q-26)


Q-7. Identify true statements about an inspection.

  • Trained moderator
  • No pre-meeting preparations
  • Formal follow-up
  • Defect Identification

a. False, True, False, False

b. True, False, True, True

c. False, True, False, False

d. False, False, True, False

A-7: b. True, False, True, True. (FL 3.2.3) (LO 3.2.1) (LO 3 Q-27)


Q-8. In which software development life cycle phase(s) is static testing used?

a. Requirements.

b. Design.

c. Coding.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-8: d. All of the above. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.2) (LO 3 Q-28)


Q-9. Which of the following are verification activities performed during a product’s design?

a. Reviews and inspections.

b. Inspections and testing.

c. Reviews and testing.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-9: a. Reviews and inspections. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-29)

Q-10. What is the best way to describe how static analysis techniques compare to dynamic techniques?

a. Static techniques identify defects and dynamic techniques identify suspicious areas of code that require investigation.

b. Dynamic techniques identify defects as well as suspicious areas of code that require investigation.

c. Dynamic techniques identify defects and static techniques identify suspicious areas of code that require investigation.

d. None of the above.

A-10: c. Dynamic techniques identify defects and static techniques identify suspicious areas of code that require investigation. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.3.3) (LO 3 Q-30)


Q-11. Identify a test execution metric. Select all that apply.

a. Percentage of planned-for test preparation effort that’s complete.

b. Confidence in the product under test.

c. Testing costs to date.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-11: b. Confidence in the product under test. and c. Testing costs to date. (FL 5.3.1) (LO 5.3.1) (LO 5 Q-26)


Q-12. Which of the following may influence project risk? Select all that apply.

a. The development process.

b. The organization.

c. The work environment.

d. Technology.

e. Suppliers.

A-12: b. The organization, d. Technology and e. Suppliers. (FL 5.5.3) (LO 5.5.3) (LO 5 Q-27)

Q-13. During what phase of the test process are stakeholders consulted so the appropriate tests are created? Select all that apply.

a. Test analysis and design.

b. Test planning and control.

c. Test implementation and execution.

A-13: a. Test analysis and design. (FL 5.2.2) ( LO 5.2.2) (LO 5 Q-28)

Q-14. What is a characteristic of the consultative test approach? Select all that apply.

a. The bug-hunting strategy used bug profiles.

b. Stakeholders may disagree as to the conditions to be tested.

c. An industry standard determines the test cases to be executed.

A-14: b. Stakeholders may disagree as to the conditions to be tested. (FL 5.2.2) (LO 5.2.3) (LO 5 Q-29)


Q-15. Identify a valid entry criterion for unit testing. Select all that apply.

a. The unit is subject to formal configuration control.

b. Functional requirements are complete.

c. Testable code is available.

A-15: b. Functional requirements are complete. and c. Testable code is available. (FL 5.2.3) (LO 5.2.9) (LO 5 Q-30)


Q-16. What activity is required to complete the multi-stage test automation process?

a. Define the business objectives that a test tool will support.

b. Evaluate alternative forms of tool support.

c. Coach and mentor the entire test team in the use and maintenance of test tools.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: a. Define the business objectives that a test tool will support. and b. Evaluate alternative forms of tool support. (FL 6.2.3) (LO 6.3.3) (FL 6 Q-26)

Q-17. What determines how successful the implementation of a test tool will be?

a. A revision of test processes to accommodate the test tool’s requirements.

b. The incorporation of lessons learned regarding test tool use in a test organization’s policies and procedures.

c. The training of the entire project team in how the tool supports the test project’s objectives.

d All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: a. A revision of test processes to accommodate the test tool’s requirements. and b. The incorporation of lessons learned regarding test tool use in a test organization’s policies and procedures. (FL 6.2.3) (LO 6.3.3) (LO 6 Q-27)

Q-18. What model can used to introduce a test tool to an organization?

a. Cost/benefit analysis.

b. Lessons learned.

c. Pilot project.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-18: c Pilot project. (FL 6.2.2) (LO 6.3.2) (LO 6 Q-28)

Q-19. What information should be gathered during a pilot project for management to consider when deciding if a test tool should be adopted?

a. The support for the tool in terms of current procedures and documentation.

b. The test tool’s probable use in the organization’s processes.

c. The benefits that can be achieved by using the tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-19: b. The test tool’s probable use in the organization’s processes. and c. The benefits that can be achieved by using the tool. (FL 6.2.2) (LO 6.3.2) (FL 6 Q-29)

Q-20. How is the Application Life Cycle Management tool classified?

a. Static testing tool.

b. Test management tool.

c. Test design and implementation tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-20: b. Test management tool. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-30)

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