ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 39

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 39

QUESTIONS

Q-1. Which of the following is a valid reason to revise a test plan? Select all that apply.

a. Test effort.

b. Software project status report.

c. Change request.

d. Risk assessment.

e. Test objectives.


Q-2. A revision of a risk assessment affects which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Test planning.

b. Test control.

c. Evaluation of exit criteria.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-3. Which of the following influences the testing scope?

a. The software product’s status.

b. Change requests.

c. Project risk assessment.

d. Test levels.

e. Test project objectives.


Q-4. What option does a tester use to identify defects by evaluating pieces of a system, which provide a certain set of capabilities? Select all that apply.

a. Unit testing.

b. Component testing.

c. Integration testing.

d. System testing.

e. Acceptance testing.


Q-5. Specify test item pass and fail criteria, arrange for the availability of hardware, test tools and software are examples of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Test planning activities.

b. Test analysis activities.

c. Test design activities.

d. Test implementation activities.

e. Test execution activities.


Q-6. In what circumstance are memory leaks identified?

a. During dynamic testing.

b. During static testing.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

Q-7. Which of the following are defects identified by dynamic testing?

a. Design defects.

b. Resource leaks.

c. Interface defects.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-8. What type of static test tool usage allows for the identification of the failure to adhere to guidelines for interfacing an application with an external system?

a. Measuring the structural complexity of code.

b. Examining code for its compliance with coding standards.

c. Data flow analysis.

d. Control flow analysis.

e. All of the above.

f. None of the above.

Q-9. Source code is an example of what?

a. Test object that is the subject of Static analysis.

b. Test object that is the subject of a review.

c. Test object that is the subject of dynamic analysis.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above

Q-10. In what case should a test manager work with the expert-based test estimation approach? Select all that apply.

a. To create a top-down estimate.

b. To create a bottom-up estimate.

c. To create a question-and-answer estimate.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-11. Which of the following is included in the content of an incident report according to IEEE Std. 829-1998? Select all that apply.

a. Expected and actual results of the relevant test case.

b. Screen print created by the tester that’s related to the incident’s source.

c. Severity of the incident.

d. Impact of the incident on the development of the component.

e. A narrative that summarizes the severity of the defect.

Q-12. Which of the following must be addressed in a test execution schedule? Select all that apply.

a. Debugging.

b. Regression testing.

c. Incident reporting.

d. Release of test tools.

e. Development activities.

Q-13. You want to determine the point at which a test effort should be concluded. What do you use to do so? Select all that apply.

a. Exit criteria in the test plan.

b. Exit criteria in the test design specification.

c. Exit criteria in the test procedure.

Q-14. What option is available to convey information regarding testing policies, testing objectives, project risks and testable product characteristics? Select all that apply.

a. Test design specification.

b. Test plan.

c. Test procedure.


Q-15. A tester wants to identify optimal system settings. How is this requirement met?

a. Monitoring tool.

b. Unit test framework tool.

c. Dynamic analysis tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-16. What is a requirement for a monitoring tool?

a. Warn of impending service provision issues.

b. Gauge how an application behaves under heavy load conditions.

c. Identify optimal system settings.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. Which of the following is a valid reason to revise a test plan? Select all that apply.

a. Test effort.

b. Software project status report.

c. Change request.

d. Risk assessment.

e. Test objectives.

A-1: b. Software project status report. c. Change request. and d. Risk assessment. (FL 5.2.1) (LO 1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-191)


Q-2. A revision of a risk assessment affects which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Test planning.

b. Test control.

c. Evaluation of exit criteria.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-2: a. Test planning. (FL 1.4.1) (LO 1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-192)

Q-3. Which of the following influences the testing scope?

a. The software product’s status.

b. Change requests.

c. Project risk assessment.

d. Test levels.

e. Test project objectives.

A-3: c. Project risk assessment. d. Test levels. and e. Test project objectives. (FL 1.4.1) (LO 1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-193)


Q-4. What option does a tester use to identify defects by evaluating pieces of a system, which provide a certain set of capabilities? Select all that apply.

a. Unit testing.

b. Component testing.

c. Integration testing.

d. System testing.

e. Acceptance testing.

A-4: a. Unit testing. (FL 1.2.1) (LO 1.1.3) (LO 1 Q-194)


Q-5. Specify test item pass and fail criteria, arrange for the availability of hardware, test tools and software are examples of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Test planning activities.

b. Test analysis activities.

c. Test design activities.

d. Test implementation activities.

e. Test execution activities.

A-5: a. Test planning activities. (FL 1.4.1) (LO 1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-195)


Q-6. In what circumstance are memory leaks identified?

a. During dynamic testing.

b. During static testing.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

A-6: a. During dynamic testing. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-191)

Q-7. Which of the following are defects identified by dynamic testing?

a. Design defects.

b. Resource leaks.

c. Interface defects.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-7: b. Resource leaks. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.3.1) (LO 3 Q- 192)

Q-8. What type of static test tool usage allows for the identification of the failure to adhere to guidelines for interfacing an application with an external system?

a. Measuring the structural complexity of code.

b. Examining code for its compliance with coding standards.

c. Data flow analysis.

d. Control flow analysis.

e. All of the above.

f. None of the above.

A-8: b. Examining code for its compliance with coding standards. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.3.3) (LO 3 Q-194)

Q-9. Source code is an example of what?

a. Test object that is the subject of Static analysis.

b. Test object that is the subject of a review.

c. Test object that is the subject of dynamic analysis.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above

A-9: a. A test object that is the subject of Static analysis. and c. Test object that is the subject of dynamic analysis. (FL 3.1.1) (LO 3.1.1) (LO 3 Q-190)


Q-10. In what case should a test manager work with the expert-based test estimation approach? Select all that apply.

a. To create a top-down estimate.

b. To create a bottom-up estimate.

c. To create a question-and-answer estimate.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-10: b. To create a bottom-up estimate. (FL 5.2.6) (LO 5.2.8) (LO 5 Q-191)

Q-11. Which of the following is included in the content of an incident report according to IEEE Std. 829-1998? Select all that apply.

a. Expected and actual results of the relevant test case.

b. Screen print created by the tester that’s related to the incident’s source.

c. Severity of the incident.

d. Impact of the incident on the development of the component.

e. A narrative that summarizes the severity of the defect.

A-11: a. Expected and actual results of the relevant test case. and c. Severity of the incident. (FL 5.6.1) (LO 5.6.1) (FL 5 Q-192)

Q-12. Which of the following must be addressed in a test execution schedule? Select all that apply.

a. Debugging.

b. Regression testing.

c. Incident reporting.

d. Release of test tools.

e. Development activities.

A-12: b. Regression testing. and c. Incident reporting. (FL 5.2.4) (LO 5.2.5) (LO 5 Q-193)


Q-13. You want to determine the point at which a test effort should be concluded. What do you use to do so? Select all that apply.

a. Exit criteria in the test plan.

b. Exit criteria in the test design specification.

c. Exit criteria in the test procedure.

A-13: a. Exit criteria in the test plan. (FL 5.2.1) (LO 5.2.2) (LO 5 Q-194)

Q-14. What option is available to convey information regarding testing policies, testing objectives, project risks and testable product characteristics? Select all that apply.

a. Test design specification.

b. Test plan.

c. Test procedure.

A-14: b. Test plan. (FL 5.2.1) (LO 5.2.2)


Q-15. A tester wants to identify optimal system settings. How is this requirement met?

a. Monitoring tool.

b. Unit test framework tool.

c. Dynamic analysis tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-15. a. Monitoring tool. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-114)

Q-16. What is a requirement for a monitoring tool?

a. Warn of impending service provision issues.

b. Gauge how an application behaves under heavy load conditions.

c. Identify optimal system settings.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: a. Warn of impending service provision issues and C. Identify optimal system settings.(FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q- 115)

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