ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 33

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 33

QUESTIONS

Q-1. Which of the following is a valid step in the debugging process? Select all that apply.

a. Creating test cases.

b. Identifying suspected causes of bugs.

c. Performing regression tests.

d. None of the above.

e. All of the above.


Q-2. Track and analyze defects is a task of which major test activity? Select all that apply.

a. Test planning.

b. Test control.

c. Test analysis.

d. Test design.

e. Test implementation.

f. Test execution.

g. Evaluation of exit criteria.

h. Reporting.

i. Test closure.


Q-3. Which of the following reflects the role of testing in the SDLC? Select all that apply.

a. Improves the development process.

b. Determines if a system meets user needs.

c. Instills confidence in the testing process.


Q-4. How do you evaluate the sharing of data or passing of control using application programming interfaces or a hardware bus? Select all that apply.

a. Component testing.

b. Unit testing.

c. Integration testing.

d. System testing.

e. Acceptance testing.


Q-5. What criteria influences the test procedure or the series of actions that are taken to execute a test? Select all that apply.

a. The test procedure setup criteria.

b. The test procedure shutdown criteria.

c. The test procedure restart criteria.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-6: What leads to the identification of infinite loops?

a. Dynamic analysis.

b. Static analysis.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

Q-7: A ______________can take the form of a dry run or the presentation of scenarios.

a. Information review.

b. Walkthrough.

c. Technical review.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-8: True or False: Reviews, regardless of type, can take place in any order.

a. True.

b. False.

Q-9. What process offers the ability to perform testing offline using a manual process?

a. Static analysis.

b. Dynamic analysis.

c. Either static analysis or dynamic analysis.

d. Neither static analysis nor dynamic analysis.

Q-10. True or False: In most cases, a walkthrough is the least formal of any review.

a. True.

b. False.


Q-11. What is the significance of a test summary report? Select all that apply.

a. Serves as input to the risk management process.

b. Serves as input to the software product release decision.

c. Summarizes the testing effort for all test levels.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-12. Which of the following is an element of the test summary report? Select all that apply.

a. A summary of the evaluation of test items.

b. A comprehensive assessment of defects identified.

c. A summary of test activities conducted.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-13. What is used to identify items that make up a system? Select all that apply.

a. Software configuration control.

b. Software change control.

c. Software configuration management.

d. Software configuration accounting.

e. Software configuration auditing.

Q-14. A test plan consists of which of the following? Select all that apply.

Test Environment Requirements

Strategy

Test Deliverables

Features to be Tested

Feature Pass Criteria

a. No, Yes, Yes, Yes, No

b. No, Yes, No, No, Yes

c. Yes, No, Yes, Yes, No

d. Yes, No, No , Yes, Yes


Q-15. What are two methods used to estimate a test effort? Select all that apply.

a. The analytical estimation approach.

b. The metric-based estimation approach.

c. The regression-averse estimation approach.

d. The model-based estimation approach.

e. The expert-based estimation approach.


Q-16. What is the primary advantage of using a test comparator tool?

a. Identifies test inputs to exercise coverage items.

b. Identifies differences between one file and another, one database and another.

c. Gauge how an application behaves under heavy load conditions.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-17. What are the benefits of a coverage measurement tool?

a. Instruments the code under test.

b. May use a test oracle.

c. Identifies optimal system settings.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. Which of the following is a valid step in the debugging process? Select all that apply.

a. Creating test cases.

b. Identifying suspected causes of bugs.

c. Performing regression tests.

d. None of the above.

e. All of the above.

A-1: e. All of the above. (FL 1.1.2) (LO 1.2.3) (LO 1 Q-161)


Q-2. Track and analyze defects is a task of which major test activity? Select all that apply.

a. Test planning.

b. Test control.

c. Test analysis.

d. Test design.

e. Test implementation.

f. Test execution.

g. Evaluation of exit criteria.

h. Reporting.

i. Test closure.

A-2: h. Reporting. (FL 1.4.1) (LO 1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-162)


Q-3. Which of the following reflects the role of testing in the SDLC? Select all that apply.

a. Improves the development process.

b. Determines if a system meets user needs.

c. Instills confidence in the testing process.

A-3: b. Determines if a system meets user needs. (FL 1.1.2) (LO 1.2.3) (LO 1 Q-163)


Q-4. How do you evaluate the sharing of data or passing of control using application programming interfaces or a hardware bus? Select all that apply.

a. Component testing.

b. Unit testing.

c. Integration testing.

d. System testing.

e. Acceptance testing.

A-4: c. Integration testing. (FL 1.2.1) (LO 1.1.3) (LO 1 Q-164)


Q-5. What criteria influences the test procedure or the series of actions that are taken to execute a test? Select all that apply.

a. The test procedure setup criteria.

b. The test procedure shutdown criteria.

c. The test procedure restart criteria.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-5: b. The test procedure shutdown criteria. and c. The test procedure restart criteria. (FL 1.4.1) (LO 1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-165)


Q-6: What leads to the identification of infinite loops?

a. Dynamic analysis.

b. Static analysis.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

A-6: b. Static analysis. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (FL 3 Q-161)

Q-7: A ______________can take the form of a dry run or the presentation of scenarios.

a. Information review.

b. Walkthrough.

c. Technical review.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-7: b. Walkthrough. (FL 3.2.3) (LO 3.2.2) (FL 3 Q-162)

Q-8: True or False: Reviews, regardless of type, can take place in any order.

a. True.

b. False.

A-8: a. True. (FL 3.2.3) (LO 3.2.2) (LO 3 Q-164)

Q-9. What process offers the ability to perform testing offline using a manual process?

a. Static analysis.

b. Dynamic analysis.

c. Either static analysis or dynamic analysis.

d. Neither static analysis nor dynamic analysis.

A-9: a. Static analysis. (FL 3.2.3) (LO 3.2.2) (LO 3 Q-1.6.4)

Q-10. True or False: In most cases, a walkthrough is the least formal of any review.

a. True.

b. False.

A-10. b. False. (FL 3.2.3) (LO 3.2.2) (LO 3 Q-160)


Q-11. What is the significance of a Test Summary Report? Select all that apply.

a. Serves as input to the risk management process.

b. Serves as input to the software product release decision.

c. Summarizes the testing effort for all test levels.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-11: b. Serves as input to the software product release decision. and c. Summarizes the testing effort for all test levels. (FL 5.3.2) (LO 5.3.3) (LO 5 Q-161)

Q-12. Which of the following is an element of the Test Summary Report? Select all that apply.

a. A summary of the evaluation of test items.

b. A comprehensive assessment of defects identified.

c. A summary of test activities conducted.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-12: a. A summary of the evaluation of test items. and c. A summary of test activities conducted. (FL 5.3.2) (LO 5.3.3) (LO 5 Q-162)

Q-13. What is used to identify items that make up a system? Select all that apply.

a. Software configuration control.

b. Software change control.

c. Software configuration management.

d. Software configuration accounting.

e. Software configuration auditing.

A-13: c. Software configuration management. (FL 5.4.1) (LO 5.4.1) (LO 5 Q-163)

Q-14. A test plan consists of which of the following? Select all that apply.

Test Environment Requirements

Strategy

Test Deliverables

Features to be Tested

Feature Pass Criteria

a. No, Yes, Yes, Yes, No

b. No, Yes, No, No, Yes

c. Yes, No, Yes, Yes, No

d. Yes, No, No , Yes, Yes

A-14: c. Yes, No, Yes, Yes, No

(FL 5.2.1) (LO 5.2.2) (lo 5 Q-164)

Q-15. What are two methods used to estimate a test effort? Select all that apply.

a. The analytical estimation approach.

b. The metrics-based estimation approach.

c. The regression-averse estimation approach.

d. The model-based estimation approach.

e. The expert-based estimation approach.

A-15: b. The metrics-based estimation approach. and e. The expert-based estimation approach. (FL 5.2.6) (LO 5.2.8) (LO 5 Q-83)


Q-16. What is the primary advantage of using a test comparator tool?

a. Identifies test inputs to exercise coverage items.

b. Identifies differences between one file and another, one database and another.

c. Gauge how an application behaves under heavy load conditions.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: b. Identifies differences between one file and another, one database and another. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-84)

Q-17. What are the benefits of a coverage measurement tool?

a. Instruments the code under test.

b. May use a test oracle.

c. Identifies optimal system settings.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17. a. Instruments the code under test. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-85)

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