ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 31

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 31

QUESTIONS

Q-1. Which of the following is a benefit of an SDLC model? Select all that apply.

a. The ability to organize a software project in light of the test team’s primary objectives.

b. The ability to define test objectives on the basis of the SDLC model’s phases.

c. The ability to specify test activities and test case composition according to the SDLC model.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-2. Which of the following is the basis of testing principle number two? Select all that apply.

a. Absence of Errors Fallacy.

b. Defect clustering.

c. Pesticide Paradox.

d. Exhaustive testing.

e. Early testing.


Q-3. Which of the following is an objective of unit testing? Select all that apply.

a. Verify the function of a single, separately testable software element.

b. Verify the interactions between software components.

c. Verify the logical design of the system.

d. Verify the performance of the software.

e. Verify the system behaviors comply with customer requirements.


Q-4. What statement is incorrect in regards to the environmental needs of a test effort? Select all that apply.

a. Environmental needs include the software under test.

b. Environmental needs include roles and responsibilities.

c. Environmental needs include security.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-5. Which of the following is the testing objective of system testing? Select all that apply.

a. Verify the function of a single, separately testable software element.

b. Verify the interactions between software components.

c. Verify the logical design of the system.

d. Verify the performance of the software.

e. Verify the system behaviors comply with customer requirements.


Q-6. What is a primary difference between the use of control flow analysis and data flow analysis?

a. Control flow analysis focuses on dead code and data flow analysis on undefined variables.

b. Data flow analysis focuses on unused variables and control flow analysis on failures to release main memory dynamically.

c. Control flow analysis focuses on syntax violation in code and data flow analysis on variables that are redefined before use.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-7. The failure to use a new development library, rather than a standard software library is__________________.

a. A focus of control flow analysis.

b. A focus of checks for compliance to coding standards.

c. A focus of data flow analysis.

d. None of the above.

Q-8. Infrequent comments or an insufficient number of comments may reflect an issue with _______________.

a. Code complexity.

b. Code maintainability.

c. Invalid hyperlinks.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-9: What defects can be identified by reviews?

a. Pointer issues.

b. Design defects.

c. Interface specification issues.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-10. Which review option never requires participants to follow written procedures or formal instructions?

a. Technical review.

b. Walkthrough.

c. Informal review.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-11. In what sequence are documents created for a test effort? Select all that apply.

a. Project documents, test item documents, test plan, test design specifications, test case specifications and test procedure specifications.

b. Project documents, test design specifications, test case specifications, test plan and test procedure.

c. Test design specifications, test case specifications, test plan, test procedure and project documents.

d. Any of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-12. What constraints must be considered when scheduling tests for execution? Select all that apply.

a. Test case dependencies.

b. The availability of a tester with a certain skillset.

c. Test case post-cursors.

d. The configuration of a test environment.

e. Data dependencies.

Q-13. In what circumstance would a tester participate in system testing? Select all that apply.

a. To evaluate a function for software developed using procedural programming languages.

b. To evaluate a number of pieces of a system to identify defects.

c. To evaluate the relationship between one component and another.

d. To evaluate a system’s response to error conditions.

e. To confirm a program adheres to documented requirements.

Q-14. What are characteristics of a metrics-based estimation approach? Select all that apply.

a. The method produces a top-down estimate.

b. The method produces a bottom-up estimate.

c. The method produces a question-and-answer based estimate.

d. The method produces an expert-based estimate.

e. None of the above.

Q-15. What option can be used to estimate a test project’s effort? Select all that apply.

a. The analytical estimation approach.

b. The metrics-based estimation approach.

c. The regression-averse estimation approach.

d. The model-based estimation approach.

e. The expert-based estimation approach.


Q-16. What test management tool provides a bug tracking solution that supports customizable workflows and fields, flexible reporting and provides summary-level information for all types of artifacts (requirements, test cases, incidents, etc.) that can be used to drill-down into the appropriate section of the application?

A. Application life cycle management tool.

B. Continuous integration tool.

C. Requirements management tool.

D. All of the above.

E. None of the above.

Q-17. In what circumstance are all developer working copies merged to a shared mainline multiple times per day?

a. Configuration management tool.

b. Acceptance test-driven development tool.

c. Continuous integration tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. Which of the following is a benefit of an SDLC model? Select all that apply.

a. The ability to organize a software project in light of the test team’s primary objectives.

b. The ability to define test objectives on the basis of the SDLC model’s phases.

c. The ability to specify test activities and test case composition according to the SDLC model.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-1: b. The ability to define test objectives on the basis of the SDLC model’s phases. and c. The ability to specify test activities and test case composition according to the SDLC model. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.2) (LO 1 Q-151)


Q-2. Which of the following is the basis of testing principle number 2? Select all that apply.

a. Absence of Errors Fallacy.

b. Defect clustering.

c. Pesticide Paradox.

d. Exhaustive testing.

e. Early testing.

A-2: d. Exhaustive testing. (FL 1.3.1) (LO 1.3.1) (LO 1 Q-152)

Q-3. Which of the following is an objective of unit testing? Select all that apply.

a. Verify the function of a single, separately testable software element.

b. Verify the interactions between software components.

c. Verify the logical design of the system.

d. Verify the performance of the software.

e. Verify the system behaviors comply with customer requirements.

A-3: a. Verify the function of a single, separately testable software element. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.2) (LO 1 Q-153)


Q-4. What statement is incorrect in regards to the environmental needs of a test effort? Select all that apply.

a. Environmental needs include the software under test.

b. Environmental needs include roles and responsibilities.

c. Environmental needs include security.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-4: c. Environmental needs include security. (FL 1.4.1) (LO 1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-154)

Q-5. Which of the following is the testing objective of system testing? Select all that apply.

a. Verify the function of a single, separately testable software element.

b. Verify the interactions between software components.

c. Verify the logical design of the system.

d. Verify the performance of the software.

e. Verify the system behaviors comply with customer requirements.

A-5: c. Verify the logical design of the system. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.2) (LO 1 Q-155)


Q-6. What is a primary difference between the use of control flow analysis and data flow analysis?

a. Control flow analysis focuses on dead code and data flow analysis on undefined variables.

b. Data flow analysis focuses on unused variables and control flow analysis on failures to release main memory dynamically.

c. Control flow analysis focuses on syntax violation in code and data flow analysis on variables that are redefined before use.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-6: a. Control flow analysis focuses on dead code and data flow analysis on undefined variables. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.3.1) (LO 3 Q- 151)

Q-7. The failure to use a new development library, rather than a standard software library is__________________.

a. A focus of control flow analysis.

b. A focus of checks for compliance to coding standards.

c. A focus of data flow analysis.

d. None of the above.

A-7: b. A focus of checks for compliance to coding standards. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.3.1) (LO 3 Q-152)

Q-8. Infrequent comments or an insufficient number of comments may reflect an issue with _______________.

a. Code complexity.

b. Code maintainability.

c. Invalid hyperlinks.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-8: b. Code maintainability. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.3.1) (LO 3 Q-153)

Q-9: What defects can be identified by reviews?

a. Pointer issues.

b. Design defects.

c. Interface specification issues.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-9: b. Design defects. and c. Interface specification issues. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.3.1) (LO 3 Q-154)

Q-10. Which review option never requires participants to follow written procedures or formal instructions?

a. Technical review.

b. Walkthrough.

c. Informal review.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-10: c. Informal review. (FL 3.2.3) (LO 3.2.2) (FL 3 Q-150)


Q-11. In what sequence are documents created for a test effort? Select all that apply.

a. Project documents, test item documents, test plan, test design specifications, test case specifications and test procedure specifications.

b. Project documents, test design specifications, test case specifications, test plan and test procedure.

c. Test design specifications, test case specifications, test plan, test procedure and project documents.

d. Any of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-11: a. Project documents, test item documents, test plan, test design specifications, test case specifications and test procedure specifications. (FL 5.2.1) (LO 5.2.2) (LO 5 Q-151)

Q-12. What constraints must be considered when scheduling tests for execution? Select all that apply.

a. Test case dependencies.

b. The availability of a tester with a certain skillset.

c. Test case post-cursors.

d. The configuration of a test environment.

e. Data dependencies.

A-12: b. The availability of a tester with a certain skillset. d. The configuration of a test environment. and e. Data dependencies. (FL 5.2.4) (LO 5.2.4) (LO 5 Q-152)

Q-13. In what circumstance would a tester participate in system testing? Select all that apply.

a. To evaluate a function for software developed using procedural programming languages.

b. To evaluate a number of pieces of a system to identify defects.

c. To evaluate the relationship between one component and another.

d. To evaluate a system’s response to error conditions.

e. To confirm a program adheres to documented requirements.

A-13: d. To evaluate a system’s response to error conditions. (LO 5.2.1) (LO 5 Q-153)

Q-14. What are characteristics of a metrics-based estimation approach? Select all that apply.

a. The method produces a top-down estimate.

b. The method produces a bottom-up estimate.

c. The method produces a question-and-answer based estimate.

d. The method produces an expert-based estimate.

e. None of the above.

A-14: a. The method produces a top-down estimate. (T) and c. The method produces a question-and-answer based estimate. (FL 5.2.6) (LO 5.2.8) (LO 5 Q-154)

Q-15. What option can be used to estimate a test project’s effort? Select all that apply.

a. The analytical estimation approach.

b. The metrics-based estimation approach.

c. The regression-averse estimation approach.

d. The model-based estimation approach.

e. The expert-based estimation approach.

A-15: b. The metrics-based estimation approach. and e. The expert-based estimation approach. (FL 5.2.6) (LO 5.2.8) (LO 5 Q-73)


Q-16. What test management tool provides a bug tracking solution that supports customizable workflows and fields, flexible reporting and provides summary-level information for all types of artifacts (requirements, test cases, incidents, etc.) that can be used to drill-down into the appropriate section of the application?

a. Application life cycle management tool.

b. Continuous integration tool.

c. Requirements management tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: a. Application life cycle management tool. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-74)

Q-17. In what circumstance are all developer working copies merged to a shared mainline multiple times per day?

a. Configuration management tool.

b. Acceptance test-driven development tool.

c. Continuous integration tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: c. Continuous integration tool (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-75)

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