ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 28

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 28

QUESTIONS

Q-1. What should be considered when a test objective is specified? Select all that apply.

a. Software development life cycle.

b. Test object.

c. Project.

d. None of the above.

e. All of the above.


Q-2. How do you ensure the outcome of an assessment of a work product’s quality is an indication of the actual quality of the product? Select all that apply.

a. Cooperation between stakeholders and developers.

b. Management support for a test project.

c. Tester independence.

d. The status of the work product.

e. Development is fully accountable for the quality of the work product.


Q-3. Which statement is correct in regards to the seven principles in testing? Select all that apply.

a. Zeno’s paradox states that while each additional test increases the risk that a work product under test contains additional defects, an infinite number of tests are needed to eliminate the risk that one or defects exists.

b. Early testing is essential to identify the majority of a software product’s defects.

c. Defect clustering is the assumption that a small number of modules contain the large majority of a software product’s defects.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-4. Which of the following is a valid test execution activity? Select all that apply.

a. Locate and install software to be tested.

b. Plan for the creation and maintenance of documentation.

c. Record the identities and versions of the test tools.

d. Create test suites from test procedures.

e. Verify the bi-directional traceability between the test basis and test cases.


Q-5. You want to specify that certain metrics should be used to control and monitor the testing effort. How do you do so? Select all that apply.

a. Test planning.

b. Test control.

c. Test analysis.

d. Test design.

e. Test implementation.


Q-6. Which of the following is used to identify syntax violations in code, erroneous logic and overly complicated constructs?

a. Dynamic analysis.

b. Static analysis.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

Q-7. Which of the following is an objective an a walkthrough?

a. Identify defects in the document under review.

b. Discuss findings to improve the document.

c. Provide a learning opportunity for the developer.

d. Discuss and gain a consensus regarding the validity of a proposed solution recorded in a document.

e. All of the above.

f. None of the above.

Q-8. Which of the following is a primary objective of an informal review?

a. Identify defects in the document under review.

b. Discuss findings to improve the document.

c. Provide a learning opportunity for the developer.

d. All of the above.

e None of the above.

Q-9. A scribe documents the meeting’s minutes and findings for a __________________.

a. Technical review.

b. Walkthrough.

c. Inspection.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-10. Which of the following is not a static testing technique?

a. Walkthrough.

b. Data flow analysis.

c. Inspection.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-11. A test manager requires a report that will alert him as to project control issues. What report should be used? Select all that apply.

a. Test readiness.

b. Total number of defects detected in each activity.

c. Number of tests executed to date.

d. Number of units accepted into configuration management system.

e. Unresolved defect reports.

Q-12. What is the advantage of a model-based strategy versus a standard-compliant strategy? Select all that apply.

a. Whereas the test cases of a model-based strategy are realistic and reflective of a work product’s actual inputs, operating conditions and usage, the test cases of a standard-compliant strategy reflect the expertise of those who developed the standard.

b. Whereas the test cases of a model-based strategy contribute to a transparent test process, the test cases of a standard-compliant strategy can easily be traced to test conditions and the test basis.

c. Whereas the test cases of a model-based strategy are complete and accurate, the test cases of a standard-compliant strategy avoids a gap in test coverage.

Q-13. What activity is performed by the tester? Select all that apply.

a. Creates a test strategy.

b. Decides if certain tests will be automated.

c. Reviews test plans.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-14. At what point does incident logging or defect reporting occur? Select all that apply.

a. Following the deployment of software.

b. During the debugging process.

c. During the formal testing cycle.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-15. Which of the following is a step in the test planning phase of a test effort that supports the preparation and execution of tests? Select all that apply.

a. Integrate testing activities in those of the software development life cycle.

b. Specify configuration management processes.

c. Specify the test strategy, including the testing scope and project and product risks.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-16. What statement regarding a pilot project is correct?

a. Opportunity to experiment with different tools.

b. Opportunity to rate a tool’s relative cost, training requirements and technical support.

c. Confirms the benefit of a tool’s use by a test organization.

d. All of the above.

e. All of the above.

Q-17. What are the typical factors that contribute to the successful deployment of tool support?

a. The “big bang” deployment of the test tool in SDLC processes.

b. The incremental deployment of the test tool in STLC processes.

c. The incremental deployment of the test tool in SDLC processes.

d. The “big bang” deployment of the test tool in SDLC processes.

e. All of the above.

f. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. What should be considered when a test objective is specified? Select all that apply.

a. Software development life cycle.

b. Test object.

c. Project.

d. None of the above.

e. All of the above.

A-1: e. All of the above. (FL 1.2.1) (LO 1.2.2) (LO 1 Q-136)


Q-2. How do you ensure the outcome of an assessment of a work product’s quality is an indication of the actual quality of the product? Select all that apply.

a. Cooperation between stakeholders and developers.

b. Management support for a test project.

c. Tester independence.

d. The status of the work product.

e. Development is fully accountable for the quality of the work product.

A-2: b. Management support for a test project. and c. Tester independence. (FL 1.5.2) (LO 1.5.3) (LO 1 Q-137)


Q-3. Which statement is correct in regards to the seven principles in testing? Select all that apply.

a. Zeno’s paradox states that while each additional test increases the risk that a work product under test contains additional defects, an infinite number of tests are needed to eliminate the risk that one or defects exists.

b. Early testing is essential to identify the majority of a software product’s defects.

c. Defect clustering is the assumption that a small number of modules contain the large majority of a software product’s defects.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-3: c. Defect clustering is the assumption that a small number of modules contain the large majority of a software product’s defects. (FL 1.3.1) (LO 1.3.1) (LO 1 Q-139)


Q-4. Which of the following is a valid test execution activity? Select all that apply.

a. Locate and install software to be tested.

b. Plan for the creation and maintenance of documentation.

c. Record the identities and versions of the test tools.

d. Create test suites from test procedures.

e. Verify the bi-directional traceability between the test basis and test cases.

A-4: a. Locate and install software to be tested. and c. Record the identities and versions of the test tools. (FL 1.4.1) (LO 1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-139)


Q-5. You want to specify that certain metrics should be used to control and monitor the testing effort. How do you do so? Select all that apply.

a. Test planning.

b. Test control.

c. Test analysis.

d. Test design.

e. Test implementation.

A-5: a. Test planning. (FL 1.4.1) (LO1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-140)


Q-6. Which of the following is used to identify syntax violations in code, erroneous logic and overly complicated constructs?

a. Dynamic analysis.

b. Static analysis.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

A-6: b. Static analysis. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3Q-136)

Q-7. Which of the following is an objective an a walkthrough?

a. Identify defects in the document under review.

b. Discuss findings to improve the document.

c. Provide a learning opportunity for the developer.

d. Discuss and gain a consensus regarding the validity of a proposed solution recorded in a document.

e. All of the above.

f. None of the above.

A-7: e. all of the above. (FL 3.2.3) (LO 3.2.2) (LO 3 Q-137)

Q-8. Which of the following is a primary objective of an informal review?

a. Identify defects in the document under review.

b. Discuss findings to improve the document.

c. Provide a learning opportunity for the developer.

d. All of the above.

e None of the above.

A-8: A. Identify defects in the document under review. (FL 3.2.3) (LO 3.2.2) (FL 3 Q-138)

Q-9. A scribe documents the meeting’s minutes and findings for a __________________.

a. Technical review.

b. Walkthrough.

c. Inspection.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-9: b. Walkthrough. and c. Inspection. (FL 3.2.3) (LO 3.2.2) (LO 3 Q-139)

Q-10. Which of the following is not a static testing technique?

a. Walkthrough.

b. Data flow analysis.

c. Inspection.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-10: d. All of the above. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-135)


Q-11. A test manager requires a report that will alert him as to project control issues. What report should be used? Select all that apply.

a. Test readiness.

b. Total number of defects detected in each activity.

c. Number of tests executed to date.

d. Number of units accepted into configuration management system.

e. Unresolved defect reports.

A-11: a. Test readiness. d. Number of units accepted into configuration management system. and e. Unresolved defect reports. (FL 5.3.2) (LO 5.3.2) (LO 5 Q-136)

Q-12. What is the advantage of a model-based strategy versus a standard-compliant strategy? Select all that apply.

a. Whereas the test cases of a model-based strategy are realistic and reflective of a work product’s actual inputs, operating conditions and usage, the test cases of a standard-compliant strategy reflect the expertise of those who developed the standard.

b. Whereas the test cases of a model-based strategy contribute to a transparent test process, the test cases of a standard-compliant strategy can easily be traced to test conditions and the test basis.

c. Whereas the test cases of a model-based strategy are complete and accurate, the test cases of a standard-compliant strategy avoids a gap in test coverage.

A-12: a. Whereas the test cases of a model-based strategy are realistic and reflective of a work product’s actual inputs, operating conditions and usage, the test cases of a standard-compliant strategy reflect the expertise of those who developed the standard. (FL 5.2.2) (LO 5.2.3) (LO 5 Q-137)

Q-13. What activity is performed by the tester? Select all that apply.

a. Creates a test strategy.

b. Decides if certain tests will be automated.

c. Reviews test plans.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-13: c. Reviews test plans. (FL 5.1.2) (LO 5.1.4) (LO 5 Q-138)

Q-14. At what point does incident logging or defect reporting occur? Select all that apply.

a. Following the deployment of software.

b. During the debugging process.

c. During the formal testing cycle.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-14: a. Following the deployment of software. and c. During the formal testing cycle. (FL 5.6.1) (LO 5.6.1) (LO 5 Q- 139)

Q-15. Which of the following is a step in the test planning phase of a test effort that supports the preparation and execution of tests? Select all that apply.

a. Integrate testing activities in those of the software development life cycle.

b. Specify configuration management processes.

c. Specify the test strategy, including the testing scope and project and product risks.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-15: a. Integrate testing activities in those of the software development life cycle. (FL 5.2.1) (LO 5.2.6) (LO 5 Q-58)


Q-16. What statement regarding a pilot project is correct?

a. Opportunity to experiment with different tools.

b. Opportunity to rate a tool’s relative cost, training requirements and technical support.

c. Confirms the benefit of a tool’s use by a test organization.

d. All of the above.

e. All of the above.

A-16: c. Confirms the benefit of a tool’s use by a test organization. (LO 6.2.2) (LO 6.3.2) (LO 6 Q-59)

Q-17. What are the typical factors that contribute to the successful deployment of tool support?

a. The “big bang” deployment of the test tool in SDLC processes.

b. The incremental deployment of the test tool in STLC processes.

c. The incremental deployment of the test tool in SDLC processes.

d. The “big bang” deployment of the test tool in SDLC processes.

e. All of the above.

f. None of the above.

A-17: c. The incremental deployment of the test tool in SDLC processes. (FL 6.2.3) (LO 6.3.3) (LO 6 Q-60)

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