ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 27

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 27

QUESTIONS

Q-1. Which of the following is a way that a software defect can harm a person? Select all that apply.

a. A failure to achieve tactical goals.

b. The physical injury of an individual.

c. Air pollution.

d. A loss in productivity.

e. A decline in reputation.


Q-2. Which of the following is the basis of testing principle number four? Select all that apply.

a. Absence of Errors Fallacy.

b. Defect clustering.

c. Pesticide Paradox.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-3. The loss of sensitive data is an example of what? Select all that apply.

a. The failure of a business-critical system.

b. The failure of a security-critical system.

c. The failure of a safety-critical system.

d. The failure of a mission-critical system.


Q-4. Which of the following is the best definition of a defect? Select all that apply.

a. A condition that deviates from an expected condition as described in a requirements specification.

b. A deficiency in a work product that causes it to fail to meet its requirements.

c. A human mistake that’s committed at some point during the software life cycle.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-5. What is the purpose of independence in relation to a tester’s professional judgment? Select all that apply.

a. Supports the production of quality project deliverables.

b. Supports the subjective judgment of software tester in solving problems.

c. Supports the demonstration of values and behaviors a tester should demonstrate.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-6. Which of the following is a valid objective for a technical review?

a. Evaluate a software product for suitability for its purpose.

b. Identify discrepancies between a work product under review and its specifications.

c. Analyze the work product’s algorithms and its testability.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-7. A formal review’s planning phase includes which of the following?

a. Define the review’s objectives.

b. Select personnel and allocate roles.

c. Prepare for meeting.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-8. Which of the following can identify a memory leak?

a. Dynamic analysis.

b. Static analysis.

c. Coverage analysis.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-9. Which of the following is an outcome of dynamic testing?

a. The identification of complex code.

b. The identification of resource leaks.

c. The identification of infinite loops.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-10. What must occur before a test plan is implemented? Select all that apply.

a. Creation of test schedule.

b. Debugging.

c. Reviews.

Q-11. The test manager wants to plan for the preparation and execution of tests. What is required to accomplish this objective? Select all that apply.

a. Specify the risk management approach.

b. Specify what should be tested.

c. Specify project and product risks.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-12. You want to create a test plan. What information is required to accomplish this objective? Select all that apply.

a. Entry criteria, environmental needs, team roles and milestones and transmittal events.

b. Entry criteria, features to be tested, milestones and transmittal events and feature pass criteria.

c. Entry criteria, test identification, features to be tested, team roles and dependencies.

Q-13. “A description and classification of a system’s observed behavior” best describes what? Select all that apply.

a. Test summary report.

b. Incident report.

c. Root cause analysis.

d. Risk analysis.

e. Test design specification.

Q-14. What sequence of tasks must be performed to prepare for and execute test activities? Select all that apply.

a. Specify project and product risks.

b. Schedule test preparation and execution activities.

c. Specify the metrics for monitoring and controlling test preparation and execution processes.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-15. The use of a pilot project determines what?

a. The feasibility of the use of a test tool for a certain purpose.

b. Determine the cost of the use of test tools.

c. The recognition of the ways a tool can support an organization’s processes.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-16 . Which of the following is a special consideration for a test management tool?

a. A test tool executes a test script when the tester creates a test using a manual process.

b. A test tool relies on test data to execute test objects.

c. A tester can create test data using a test execution tool with no knowledge of a scripting language.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-17. Which of the following is a special consideration for a test management tool?

a. A test tool executes a test script when the tester creates a test using a manual process.

b. A test tool relies on test data to execute test objects.

c. A tester can create test data using a test execution tool with no knowledge of a scripting language.

d. All of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. Which of the following is a way that a software defect can harm a person? Select all that apply.

a. A failure to achieve tactical goals.

b. The physical injury of an individual.

c. Air pollution.

d. A loss in productivity.

e. A decline in reputation.

A-1: b. The physical injury of an individual. and e. A decline in reputation. (FL 1.1.1) (LO1.1.1) (FL 1 Q-131)

Q-2. Which of the following is the basis of testing principle number four? Select all that apply.

a. Absence of Errors Fallacy.

b. Defect clustering.

c. Pesticide Paradox.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-2: b. Defect clustering. (FL 1.3.1) (LO 1.3.1) (LO 1 Q-132)


Q-3. The loss of sensitive data is an example of what? Select all that apply.

a. The failure of a business-critical system.

b. The failure of a security-critical system.

c. The failure of a safety-critical system.

d. The failure of a mission-critical system.

A-3: b. The failure of a security-critical system. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.1.1) (LO 1 Q-133)


Q-4. Which of the following is the best definition of a defect? Select all that apply.

a. A condition that deviates from an expected condition as described in a requirements specification.

b. A deficiency in a work product that causes it to fail to meet its requirements.

c. A human mistake that’s committed at some point during the software life cycle.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-4: b. A deficiency in a work product that causes it to fail to meet its requirements. (FL 1.2.3) (LO 1.1.5) (LO 1 Q-134)


Q-5. What is the purpose of independence in relation to a tester’s professional judgment? Select all that apply.

a. Supports the production of quality project deliverables.

b. Supports the subjective judgment of software tester in solving problems.

c. Supports the demonstration of values and behaviors a tester should demonstrate.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-5: b. Supports the subjective judgment of software tester in solving problems. (FL 5.1.1) (LO 1.5.3) (LO 1 Q-130)


Q-6. Which of the following is a valid objective for a technical review?

a. Evaluate a software product for suitability for its purpose.

b. Identify discrepancies between a work product under review and its specifications.

c. Analyze the work product’s algorithms and its testability.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-6: d. All of the above. (FL 3.2.3) (LO 3.2.2) (FL 3 Q-131)

Q-7. A formal review’s planning phase includes which of the following?

a. Define the review’s objectives.

b. Select personnel and allocate roles.

c. Prepare for meeting.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-7: b. Select personnel and allocate roles. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (LO 3 Q-133)

Q-8. Which of the following can identify a memory leak?

a. Dynamic analysis.

b. Static analysis.

c. Coverage analysis.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-8: a. Dynamic analysis. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.1.2) (LO 3 Q-134)

Q-9. Which of the following is an outcome of dynamic testing?

a. The identification of complex code.

b. The identification of resource leaks.

c. The identification of infinite loops.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-9: b. The identification of resource leaks. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-130)


Q-10. What must occur before a test plan is implemented? Select all that apply.

a. Creation of test schedule.

b. Debugging.

c. Reviews.

A-10: a. Creation of test schedule. (FL 1.4.2) (LO 5.2.4) (LO 5 Q-131)

Q-11. The test manager wants to plan for the preparation and execution of tests. What is required to accomplish this objective? Select all that apply.

a. Specify the risk management approach.

b. Specify what should be tested.

c. Specify project and product risks.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-11: b. Specify what should be tested. and c. Specify project and product risks. (FL 5.2.4) (LO 5.2.6) (LO 5 Q-132)

Q-12. You want to create a test plan. What information is required to accomplish this objective? Select all that apply.

a. Entry criteria, environmental needs, team roles and milestones and transmittal events.

b. Entry criteria, features to be tested, milestones and transmittal events and feature pass criteria.

c. Entry criteria, test identification, features to be tested, team roles and dependencies.

A-12: a. Entry criteria, environmental needs, team roles and milestones and transmittal events. (FL 5.2.2) (LO 5.2.2) (LO 5 Q-133)

Q-13. “A description and classification of a system’s observed behavior” best describes what? Select all that apply.

a. Test summary report.

b. Incident report.

c. Root cause analysis.

d. Risk analysis.

e. Test design specification.

A-13: b. Incident report. (FL 5.6.1) (LO 5.6.1) (FL 5 Q-134)

Q-14. What sequence of tasks must be performed to prepare for and execute test activities? Select all that apply.

a. Specify project and product risks.

b. Schedule test preparation and execution activities.

c. Specify the metrics for monitoring and controlling test preparation and execution processes.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-14: a. Specify project and product risks. and c. Specify the metrics for monitoring and controlling test preparation and execution processes. (FL 5.2.6) (LO 5.2.6) (LO 5 Q-53)


Q-15. The use of a pilot project determines what?

a. The feasibility of the use of a test tool for a certain purpose.

b. Determine the cost of the use of test tools.

c. The recognition of the ways a tool can support an organization’s processes.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-15: a. The feasibility of the use of a test tool for a certain purpose. and c. The recognition of the ways a tool can support an organization’s processes. (FL 6.2.2 )


Q-16 . Which of the following is a special consideration for a test management tool?

a. A test tool executes a test script when the tester creates a test using a manual process.

b. A test tool relies on test data to execute test objects.

c. A tester can create test data using a test execution tool with no knowledge of a scripting language.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: c. A tester can create test data using a test execution tool with no knowledge of a scripting language. (FL 6.1.3) (LO 6.1.3) (LO 6 Q-55)

Q-17. Which of the following is a special consideration for a test management tool?

a. A test tool executes a test script when the tester creates a test using a manual process.

b. A test tool relies on test data to execute test objects.

c. A tester can create test data using a test execution tool with no knowledge of a scripting language.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: c. A tester can create test data using a test execution tool with no knowledge of a scripting language. (FL 6.1.3) (LO 6.1.3) (LO 6 Q-55)

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