ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 25

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 25

QUESTIONS

Q-1. The test level, test case composition and test adequacy criteria vary from one__________ to the next. Select all that apply.

a. Test activity.

b. Software life cycle model.

c. Project.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-2. You want to determine the level of risk that a software product poses. What should you consider? Select all that apply.

a. The product’s risk characteristics.

b. The rate of defect discovery.

c. The likelihood a threat event will occur.

d. The extent of test coverage.

e. The probable impact should the threat event occur.


Q-3. Record the identities and versions of software under test is an activity of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Test planning.

b. Test control.

c. Test analysis.

d. Test design.

e. Test implementation.

f. Test execution.


Q-4. Which of the following is a possible negative effect of the failure to test a safety-critical system? Select all that apply.

a. The physical injury to individuals.

b. Water pollution.

c. A failure to achieve tactical and strategic goals.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-5. How can you reduce the level of risk a software product poses? Select all that apply.

a. Address identified issues with the product’s quality.

b. Decrease test coverage.

c. Conduct additional testing.

d. Mitigate or transfer certain risks.

e. Increase the size of the test team.


Q-6. Which of the following is a valid reason to use static testing techniques?

a. Identify consistent Interface specifications.

b. Identify design defects.

c. Identify adherence to programming standards.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-7. Which of the following is a benefit of reviews?

a. Reduce production schedule.

b. Provide stakeholder learning opportunities.

c. Reduce project lifetime costs.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-8. General benefits of reviews include_______________.

A. Reduce product introduction costs.

B. Provide learning opportunities.

C. Reduce project schedule.

D. All of the above.

E. None of the above.

Q-9. Why is static testing important?

a. The identification of dead code.

b. The identification of resource leaks.

c. The identification of syntax violations in software models.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-10. Which of the following is a determinant of the conduct of a review?

a. Regulatory requirements.

b. Audit trail requirements.

c. Development process maturity.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-11. Which of the following best describes the function of a test script? Select all that apply.

a. The series of actions to be taken to execute a test.

b. The series of actions to be taken to execute a test by means of a manual test procedure.

c. The series of actions to be taken to execute a test by means of an automated test procedure.

Q-12. Under what circumstance is the average effort to correct a defect metric most useful? Select all that apply.

a. Test reporting.

b. Test monitoring.

c. Test execution.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-12: a. Test reporting.

Q-13. Which of the following is an attribute of the regression-averse test approach? Select all that apply.

a. The approach is an automated one.

b. The strategy may include structural tests prior to the release of software, a form of early testing.

c. The strategy may focus on functions that have been released, a form of post-release testing.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-14. Customer expectations, the reliability of the test environment, hardware delivery dates and gaps in test coverage can be described as _____________________? Select all that apply.

a. Factors that affect the test effort.

b. Factors that affect the product scope.

c. Factors that affect the reliability of test environment support.

d. Factors that affect test object quality.

e. Software delivery dates.

Q-15. When using the analytical test approach, how are test conditions determined? Select all that apply.

a. A team relies on a mathematical, statistical, graphic or tabular model of an object’s functionality to identify test conditions.

b. A team employs error guessing and practical experience to identify test conditions.

c. A team reviews project documentation to identify test conditions.

d. A team uses a standard set of test conditions.

e. A team relies on stakeholders to identify test conditions.


Q-16. What risk is related to test automation?

a. The likelihood the vendor will remain an ongoing concern.

b. The degree of organizational change required to operate the test tool successfully.

c. The degree that expectations for the test tool are unrealistic.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-17. What is a benefit of test automation and test tool support?

a. Increases the subjectivity with which test results are evaluated.

b. Minimizes data loss.

c. Increases the reliability of testing activities.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. The test level, test case composition and test adequacy criteria vary from one__________ to the next. Select all that apply.

a. Test activity.

b. Software life cycle model.

c. Project.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-1: b. Software life cycle model. and c. Project. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.2) (LO 1 Q-121)


Q-2. You want to determine the level of risk that a software product poses. What should you consider? Select all that apply.

a. The product’s risk characteristics.

b. The rate of defect discovery.

c. The likelihood a threat event will occur.

d. The extent of test coverage.

e. The probable impact should the threat event occur.

A-2: a. The product’s risk characteristics. c. The likelihood a threat event will occur. and e. The probable impact should the threat event occur. (FL 1.2.1) (LO 1.1.3) (LO 1 Q-122)


Q-3. Record the identities and versions of software under test is an activity of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Test planning.

b. Test control.

c. Test analysis.

d. Test design.

e. Test implementation.

f. Test execution.

A-3: f. Test execution. (FL 1.4.1) (LO1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-123)


Q-4. Which of the following is a possible negative effect of the failure to test a safety-critical system? Select all that apply.

a. The physical injury to individuals.

b. Water pollution.

c. A failure to achieve tactical and strategic goals.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-4: d. All of the above. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.1.1) (LO 1 Q-124)


Q-5. How can you reduce the level of risk a software product poses? Select all that apply.

a. Address identified issues with the product’s quality.

b. Decrease test coverage.

c. Conduct additional testing.

d. Mitigate or transfer certain risks.

e. Increase the size of the test team.

A-5: a. Address identified issues with the product’s quality. c. Conduct additional testing. and d. Mitigate or transfer certain risks. (FL 1.2.1) (LO 1.1.3) (LO 1 Q-120)


Q-6. Which of the following is a valid reason to use static testing techniques?

a. Identify consistent Interface specifications.

b. Identify design defects.

c. Identify adherence to programming standards.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-6: b. Identify design defects. (FL 3.1.1) ) (LO 3.1.1) (FL 3 Q-121)

Q-7. Which of the following is a benefit of reviews?

a. Reduce production schedule.

b. Provide stakeholder learning opportunities.

c. Reduce project lifetime costs.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-7: b. Provide stakeholder learning opportunities, (FL 3.2.3) (LO 3.2.2) (LO 3 Q-122)

Q-8. General benefits of reviews include_______________.

A. Reduce product introduction costs.

B. Provide learning opportunities.

C. Reduce project schedule.

D. All of the above.

E. None of the above.

A-8: b. Provide learning opportunities. and c. Reduce project schedule. (FL 3.2.3) (LO 3.2.2) (LO 3 Q-123)

Q-9. Why is static testing important?

a. The identification of dead code.

b. The identification of resource leaks.

c. The identification of syntax violations in software models.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-9: a. The identification of dead code. and c. The identification of syntax violations in software models. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (FL 3 Q-124)

Q-10. Which of the following is a determinant of the conduct of a review?

a. Regulatory requirements.

b. Audit trail requirements.

c. Development process maturity.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-10: d. All of the above. (FL 3.2.3) (LO 3.2.2) )LO 3 Q-120)


Q-11. Which of the following best describes the function of a test script? Select all that apply.

a. The series of actions to be taken to execute a test.

b. The series of actions to be taken to execute a test by means of a manual test procedure.

c. The series of actions to be taken to execute a test by means of an automated test procedure.

A-11: c. The series of actions to be taken to execute a test by means of an automated test procedure. (FL 5.2.4) (LO 5.2.4) (LO 5 Q-121)

Q-12. Under what circumstance is the effort to address a defect metric most useful? Select all that apply.

a. Test reporting.

b. Test monitoring.

c. Test execution.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-12: a. Test reporting. (FL 5.3.1) (LO 5.3.2) (LO 5 Q-122)

Q-13. Which of the following is an attribute of the regression-averse test approach? Select all that apply.

a. The approach is an automated one.

b. The strategy may include structural tests prior to the release of software, a form of early testing.

c. The strategy may focus on functions that have been released, a form of post-release testing.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-13: a. The approach is an automated one. and c. The strategy may focus on functions that have been released, a form of post-release testing. (FL 5.2.2) (LO 5.2.3) (LO 5 Q-123)

Q-14. Customer expectations, the reliability of the test environment, hardware delivery dates and gaps in test coverage can be described as _____________________? Select all that apply.

a. Factors that affect the test effort.

b. Factors that affect the product scope.

c. Factors that affect the reliability of test environment support.

d. Factors that affect test object quality.

e. Software delivery dates.

A-14: a. Factors that affect the test effort. d. Factors that affect test object quality. and e. Software delivery dates. (FL 5.2.5) (LO 5.2.7) (LO 5 Q-124)

Q-15. When using the analytical test approach, how are test conditions determined? Select all that apply.

a. A team relies on a mathematical, statistical, graphic or tabular model of an object’s functionality to identify test conditions.

b. A team employs error guessing and practical experience to identify test conditions.

c. A team reviews project documentation to identify test conditions.

d. A team uses a standard set of test conditions.

e. A team relies on stakeholders to identify test conditions.

A-15: c. A team reviews project documentation to identify test conditions. (FL 5.2.2) (LO 5.2.3) (FL 5 Q-43)

Q-16. What risk is related to test automation?

a. The likelihood the vendor will remain an ongoing concern.

b. The degree of organizational change required to operate the test tool successfully.

c. The degree that expectations for the test tool are unrealistic.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: a. The likelihood the vendor will remain an ongoing concern. and b. The degree of organizational change required to operate the test tool successfully. (FL 6.2.1) (LO 6,3,1) (LO 6 Q-44)

Q-17. What is a benefit of test automation and test tool support?

a. Increases the subjectivity with which test results are evaluated.

b. Minimizes data loss.

c. Increases the reliability of testing activities.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: c. Increases the reliability of testing activities. and b. Minimizes data loss. (FL 6.1.2) (LO 6.1.2) (LO 6 Q-45)

Subscribe

ASTQB Quiz CENTRAL is not associated with either ASTQB.org or ISTQB.org.