ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 24

Syllabus 2018s

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 24

QUESTIONS

Q-1. Which of the following is the purpose of regression testing? Select all that apply.

a. Verification that controls adequately protect a software product from external attacks.

b. The evaluation of a software product’s behavioral limits and defense mechanisms.

c. Confirmation that a modification to a component had no unintended or unanticipated effects.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-2. Which of the following is the purpose of performance testing? Select all that apply.

a. Confirmation that a system is responsive to its users.

b. Evaluation of a software product’s behavioral limits and its defense mechanisms.

c. Comparison of one version of an application with another to identify differences.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-3. Confirming that servers are executing commands properly, errors are handled appropriately, and error messages are issued when need be are referred to as ___________. Select all that apply.

a. Recovery testing.

b. Interface testing.

c. Stress testing.

d. None of the above.


Q-4. Which of the following is a software quality management process? Select all that apply.

a. Software quality evaluation.

b. Software quality assurance.

c. Software quality control.

d. Software quality design.

e. Software quality analysis.


Q-5. Which of the following is an example of an algorithm defect? Select all that apply.

a. Checked overflow condition.

b. Comparison of inappropriate data types.

c. Illegal function call.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-6. The majority of static analysis tools focus on what?

a. Software models.

b. Software code.

c. Code metrics.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-7. What is considered to be a good logging rate in terms of the number of defects logged per minute?

a. One to two defects logged per minute.

b. Three to four defects logged per minute.

c. Five to six defects logged per minute.

d. None of the above.

Q-8. The conduct of a review meeting typically consists of what activities?

a. Logging phase.

b. Defect identification phase.

c. Decision phase.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-9. A primary benefit of static testing is ____________.

a. The identification of design defects.

b. The identification of security vulnerabilities.

c. The identification of memory leaks. (F)

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-10. How does a moderator evaluate the success of the preparation phase of a review?

a. Checking rate that specifies the average number of defects that should be identified per hour. (F)

b. Checking rate that specifies the number of faults that should be identified per hour. (F)

c. Checking rate that specifies the number of pages that should be checked per hour. (T)

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-11. Which task does the test leader perform during the course of a test effort? Select all that apply.

a. Adapts the project’s status as project conditions change.

b. Defines test objectives.

c. Plans the automated testing effort.

d. Establishes and monitors software configuration management processes.

e. Implements the test environment.

Q-12. The set of test cases may be incomplete is a well-acknowledged disadvantage of what test strategy? Select all that apply.

a. Methodical test strategy.

b. Regression-averse test strategy.

c. Directed test strategy.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-13. Under what circumstance can you expect delays in the completion of test closure activities? Select all that apply.

a. Inadequate requirements specifications.

b. Extensive reliability and security requirements.

c. The transition of personnel to and from the test team.

d. A first-time-right defect fix policy.

e. Debugging performed in the test environment.

Q-14. Which of the following is a valid test strategy? Select all that apply.

a. Analytical test strategy.

b. Prototype-based test strategy.

c. Systematic test strategy.

d. Process-compliant test strategy.

e. Dynamic test strategy.

Q-15. In what circumstance might the testing effort be negatively affected? Select all that apply.

a. Change in product team goals.

b. An inadequate test environment.

c. Test process maturity.

d. Project life cycle.

e. Cuts in test budget.


Q-16. A tool used to capture test inputs during the manual execution of tests is the:

a. Test-driven development tool.

b. Test execution and logging tool.

c. Unit test framework.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-17. A primary benefit of using a unit test framework tool is ____________.

a. The provision of a foundation on which to build tests and the functionality needed to execute the tests and report results.

b. The identification of differences between one file and another, one database and another and so on.

c. The simulation of the environment in which a test object will run.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-18. Which of the following is a reason that a test coverage tool is used?

a. Simulates the environment in which a test object will run.

b. Analyzes, verifies and reports the usage of a system resource.

c. Instruments the code under test.

d. All of the above.

e None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. Which of the following is the purpose of regression testing? Select all that apply.

a. Verification that controls adequately protect a software product from external attacks.

b. The evaluation of a software product’s behavioral limits and defense mechanisms.

c. Confirmation that a modification to a component had no unintended or unanticipated effects.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-1: c. Confirmation that a modification to a component had no unintended or unanticipated effects. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.1) (LO 1 Q-116)


Q-2. Which of the following is the purpose of performance testing? Select all that apply.

a. Confirmation that a system is responsive to its users.

b. Evaluation of a software product’s behavioral limits and its defense mechanisms.

c. Comparison of one version of an application with another to identify differences.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-2: a. Confirmation that a system is responsive to its users. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.1) (LO 1 Q-117)


Q-3. Confirming that servers are executing commands properly, errors are handled appropriately, and error messages are issued when need be are referred to as ___________. Select all that apply.

a. Recovery testing.

b. Interface testing.

c. Stress testing.

d. None of the above.

A-3: b. Interface testing. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.1) (LO 1 Q-118)


Q-4. Which of the following is a software quality management process? Select all that apply.

a. Software quality evaluation.

b. Software quality assurance.

c. Software quality control.

d. Software quality design.

e. Software quality analysis.

A-4: b. Software quality assurance. and c. Software quality control. (FL 1.2.2) (LO 1.1.4) (LO 1 Q-119)


Q-5. Which of the following is an example of an algorithm defect? Select all that apply.

a. Checked overflow condition.

b. Comparison of inappropriate data types.

c. Illegal function call.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-5: b. Comparison of inappropriate data types. (FL 1.2.3) (LO 1.1.5) (LO 1 Q-120)


Q-6. The majority of static analysis tools focus on what?

a. Software models.

b. Software code.

c. Code metrics.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-6: b. Software code. (FL 3.1.1) (LO 3.3.3) (LO 3 Q-116)

Q-7. What is considered to be a good logging rate in terms of the number of defects logged per minute?

a. One to two defects logged per minute.

b. Three to four defects logged per minute.

c. Five to six defects logged per minute.

d. None of the above.

A-7: a. One to two defects logged per minute. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.1.2) (LO 3 Q-117)

Q-8. The conduct of a review meeting typically consists of what activities?

a. Logging phase.

b. Defect identification phase.

c. Decision phase.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-8: a. Logging phase and c. Decision phase. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (LO 3 Q-118)

Q-9. A primary benefit of static testing is ____________.

a. The identification of design defects.

b. The identification of security vulnerabilities.

c. The identification of memory leaks. (F)

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-9: a. The identification of design defects. and b. The identification of security vulnerabilities. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-119)

Q-10. How does a moderator evaluate the success of the preparation phase of a review?

a. Checking rate that specifies the average number of defects that should be identified per hour.

b. Checking rate that specifies the number of faults that should be identified per hour.

c. Checking rate that specifies the number of pages that should be checked per hour.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-10: c. Checking rate that specifies the number of pages that should be checked per hour. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (LO 3 Q-115)


Q-11. Which task does the test leader perform during the course of a test effort? Select all that apply.

a. Adapts the project’s status as project conditions change.

b. Defines test objectives.

c. Plans the automated testing effort.

d. Establishes and monitors software configuration management processes.

e. Implements the test environment.

A-11: b. Defines test objectives and c. Plans the automated testing effort . (FL 5.1.2) (LO 5.1.4) (LO 5 Q-117)

Q-12. The set of test cases may be incomplete is a well-acknowledged disadvantage of what test strategy? Select all that apply.

a. Methodical test strategy.

b. Regression-averse test strategy.

c. Directed test strategy.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-12: a. Methodical test strategy. and c. Directed test strategy (FL 5.2.2) (LO 5.2.3) (LO 5 Q-117)

Q-13. Under what circumstance can you expect delays in the completion of test closure activities? Select all that apply.

a. Inadequate requirements specifications.

b. Extensive reliability and security requirements.

c. The transition of personnel to and from the test team.

d. A first-time-right defect fix policy.

e. Debugging performed in the test environment.

A-13: a. Inadequate requirements specifications. and e. Debugging performed in the test environment. (FL 5.2.5) (LO 5.2.7) (FL 5 Q-118)

Q-14. Which of the following is a valid test strategy? Select all that apply.

a. Analytical test strategy.

b. Prototype-based test strategy.

c. Systematic test strategy.

d. Process-compliant test strategy.

e. Dynamic test strategy.

A-14: a. Analytical test strategy. d. Process-compliant test strategy. and e. Dynamic test strategy. (FL 5.2.2) (LO 5.2.3) (LO 5 Q-119)


Q-15. In what circumstance might the testing effort be negatively affected? Select all that apply.

a. Change in product team goals.

b. An inadequate test environment.

c. Test process maturity.

d. Project life cycle.

e. Cuts in test budget.

A-15: a. Change in product team goals. and b. An inadequate test environment. (FL 5.2.5) (LO 5.2.7) (FL 5 Q-115)


Q-16. A tool used to capture test inputs during the manual execution of tests is the:

a. Test-driven development tool.

b. Test execution and logging tool.

c. Unit test framework.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: b. Test execution and logging tool. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-116)

Q-17. A primary benefit of using a unit test framework tool is ____________.

a. The provision of a foundation on which to build tests and the functionality needed to execute the tests and report results.

b. The identification of differences between one file and another, one database and another and so on.

c. The simulation of the environment in which a test object will run.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: a. The provision of a foundation on which to build tests and the functionality needed to execute the tests and report results. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-117)

Q-18. Which of the following is a reason that a test coverage tool is used?

a. Simulates the environment in which a test object will run.

b. Analyzes, verifies and reports the usage of a system resource.

c. Instruments the code under test.

d. All of the above.

e None of the above.

A-18: c. Instruments the code under test. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-118)

Subscribe

ASTQB Quiz CENTRAL is not associated with either ASTQB.org or ISTQB.org.