ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 23

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 23

QUESTIONS

Q-1. Which of the following is the purpose of acceptance testing? Select all that apply.

a. Confirmation that a system adheres to the requirements of a contractual agreement between a development organization and a stakeholder.

b. Confirmation that a system is operational in its operating environment.

c. Confirmation that existing issues with a product will be corrected.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-2. The failure of a hospital’s computer system is an example of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. The failure of a mission-critical system.

b. The failure of a business-critical system.

c. The failure of a safety-critical system.

d. The failure of a security-critical system.

e. None of the above.


Q-3. Which of the following is an example of an error? Select all that apply.

a. The use of the wrong design documents.

b. The omission of a field from a record.

c. An array overflow.

d. Information the user requires to interact with a program is not made available by the program.

e. A function a program should perform easily is difficult to perform.


Q-4. The user has no means to initiate a required function. What may be the issue? Select all that apply.

a. Functionality error.

b. Communication error.

c. Missing command error.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-5. Module, group of modules and entire system are examples of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Test target.

b. Test basis.

c. Test level.


Q-6. Who addresses defects logged during a review?

a. Moderator.

b. Author of work product.

c. The person who recommends a valid solution to the issue.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-7. Which statement(s) about static testing with tools is false?

a. Static analysis tools perform both code flow analysis and data flow analysis.

b. The technique identifies system failures.

c. The majority of static analysis tools focus on software code.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-8. What option is used to identify missing or erroneous logic?

a. Static testing.

b. Dynamic testing.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

Q-9. Static analysis tools can’t identify which of the following?

a. Dead code.

b. Missing logic.

c. Memory leaks.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-10. A tester wants to identify missing requirements. What technique is used to do so?

a. Static testing.

b. Dynamic testing.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

Q-11. A test team identifies test conditions by means of a review of project documentation. This is a characteristic of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Checklist-based test approach.

b. Analytical test approach.

c. Model-based test approach.

Q-12. Which statement is true regarding the purpose of a test design specification? Select all that apply.

a. Refines the test strategy.

b. States the test condition pass criteria.

c. Specifies the intent of the test effort.

Q-13. What options are available when selecting a test team leader? Select all that apply.

a. Quality assurance manager.

b. Business expert.

c. Project manager.

d. Infrastructure expert.

e. Development manager.


Q-14. Which of the following statements are true regarding professional attributes that guide the test team member selection process? Select all that apply.

a. A project’s application domain influences the team member selection process.

b. A project’s risk assessment influences the team member selection process.

c. A project’s complexity influences the team member selection process.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-15. Which metric is used for test control? Select all that apply.

a. Defect density.

b. Unresolved problem reports.

c. Number of units accepted into configuration management system.

d. Number of defects versus single lines of code.

e. Number of defects detected per test activity.


Q-16. Which statement about test execution and logging tools is false?

a. Captures test outputs during the manual execution of tests.

b. Filters subsets of actual and expected results.

c. Transmits summary results to a test management tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-17. What option is used to instrument the code under test?

a. Unit test framework.

b. Coverage measurement tool.

c. Test comparator tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-18. In what instance does a tester work with a unit test framework?

a. Write and run unit tests.

b. Identify differences between one file and another.

c. Transmit messages to alert staff of impending system issues.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. Which of the following is the purpose of acceptance testing? Select all that apply.

a. Confirmation that a system adheres to the requirements of a contractual agreement between a development organization and a stakeholder.

b. Confirmation that a system is operational in its operating environment.

c. Confirmation that existing issues with a product will be corrected.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-1: a. Confirmation that a system adheres to the requirements of a contractual agreement between a development organization and a stakeholder. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.1) (LO 1 Q-111)


Q-2. The failure of a hospital’s computer system is an example of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. The failure of a mission-critical system.

b. The failure of a business-critical system.

c. The failure of a safety-critical system.

d. The failure of a security-critical system.

e. None of the above.

A-2: d. The failure of a security-critical system. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.1.1) (LO 1 Q-112)

Q-3. Which of the following is an example of an error? Select all that apply.

a. The use of the wrong design documents.

b. The omission of a field from a record.

c. An array overflow.

d. Information the user requires to interact with a program is not made available by the program.

e. A function a program should perform easily is difficult to perform.

A-3: b. The omission of a field from a record. c. An array overflow and e. A function a program should perform easily is difficult to perform. (FL 1.2.3) (LO 1.1.5) (LO 1 Q-113)


Q-4. The user has no means to initiate a required function. What may be the issue? Select all that apply.

a. Functionality error.

b. Communication error.

c. Missing command error.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-4: c. Missing command error. (FL 1.2.3) (LO 1.1.5) (FL 1 Q-114)


Q-5. Module, group of modules and entire system are examples of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Test target.

b. Test basis.

c. Test level.

A-5: a. Test target. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.1) (LO 1 Q-115)


Q-6. Who addresses defects logged during a review?

a. Moderator.

b. Author of work product.

c. The person who recommends a valid solution to the issue.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-6: b. Author of the work product. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (LO 3 Q-111)

Q-7. Which statement(s) about static testing with tools is false?

a. Static analysis tools perform both code flow analysis and data flow analysis.

b. The technique identifies system failures.

c. The majority of static analysis tools focus on software code.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-7: b. The technique identifies system failures. and c. The majority of static analysis tools focus on software code. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-112)

Q-8. What option is used to identify missing or erroneous logic?

a. Static testing.

b. Dynamic testing.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

A-8: a. Static testing. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-113)

Q-9. Static analysis tools can’t identify which of the following?

a. Dead code.

b. Missing logic.

c. Memory leaks.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-9: c. Memory leaks. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.3.3) (LO 3 Q-114)

Q-10. A tester wants to identify missing requirements. What technique is used to do so?

a. Static testing.

b. Dynamic testing.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

A-10: a. Static testing. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-110)


Q-11. A test team identifies test conditions by means of a review of project documentation. This is a characteristic of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Checklist-based test approach.

b. Analytical test approach.

c. Model-based test approach.

A-11: b. Analytical test approach. (FL 5.2.2) (LO 5.2.3) (LO 5 Q-111)

Q-12. Which statement is true regarding the purpose of a test design specification? Select all that apply.

a. Refines the test strategy.

b. States the test condition pass criteria.

c. Specifies the intent of the test effort.

A-12: a. Refines the test strategy. and c. Specifies the intent of the test effort. (FL 5.2.2) LO 5.2.2) (LO 5 Q-112)

Q-13. What options are available when selecting a test team leader? Select all that apply.

a. Quality assurance manager.

b. Business expert.

c. Project manager.

d. Infrastructure expert.

e. Development manager.

A-13: a. Quality assurance manager. c. Project manager. and e. Development manager. (LO 5.1.3) (LO 5 Q-113)

Q-14. Which of the following statements are true regarding professional attributes that guide the test team member selection process? Select all that apply.

a. A project’s application domain influences the team member selection process.

b. A project’s risk assessment influences the team member selection process.

c. A project’s complexity influences the team member selection process.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-14: e. None of the above. (FL 5.2.5) (LO 5.1.3) (LO 5 Q-114)

Q-15. Which metric is used for test control? Select all that apply.

a. Defect density.

b. Unresolved problem reports.

c. Number of units accepted into configuration management system.

d. Number of defects versus single lines of code.

e. Number of defects detected per test activity.

A-15: b. Unresolved problem reports. and c. Number of units accepted into configuration management system. (FL 5.3.1) (LO 5.3.2) (LO 5 Q-110)


Q-16. Which statement about test execution and logging tools is false?

a. Captures test outputs during the manual execution of tests.

b. Filters subsets of actual and expected results.

c. Transmits summary results to a test management tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: a. Captures test inputs during the manual execution of tests. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-111)

Q-17. What option is used to instrument the code under test?

a. Unit test framework.

b. Coverage measurement tool.

c. Test comparator tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: b. Coverage measurement tool. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-112)

Q-18. In what instance does a tester work with a unit test framework?

a. Write and run unit tests.

b. Identify differences between one file and another.

c. Transmit messages to alert staff of impending system issues.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-18: a. Write and run unit tests. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-113)

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