ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 22

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 22

QUESTIONS

Q-1. Which of the following is one way to classify unit testing? Select all that apply.

a. Testing objectives by test target.

b. General testing objectives.

c. Testing objectives by purpose.


Q-2. Which of the following is the best definition of a failure? Select all that apply.

a. An event in which a system is unsuccessful in performing a required function within a specified limit.

b. A defect that causes software to behave in unexpected and unplanned-for ways.

c. A mistake that’s committed at some point in the software life cycle.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-3. Which of the following is a valid test implementation activity? Select all that apply.

a. Create test cases.

b. Create test data.

c. Identify required test infrastructure and tools.

d. Write test scripts for automated tests.

e. Create test item transmittal.


Q-4. A software product’s risk level is the result of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. A product’s technical characteristics.

b. The likelihood a threat event will occur.

c. The probable impact should the threat event occur.


Q-5. Which of the following is a testing objective described by its purpose? Select all that apply.

a. Confirmation that software can be installed over a network.

b. Verification of a system’s physical design.

c. Improvement in a software product’s quality by the identification of failures and the removal of defects.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-6. What is the definition of dynamic analysis?

a. Execute software to evaluate the quality attributes of code.

b. Execute software to identify defects.

c. Execute software to identify system failures.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-7. Which of the following applies to an inspection?

Trained Moderator

No Preparation

Follow-up processes

Identifies defects

a. False, True, False, False

b. True, False, True, True

c. False, True, False, False

d. False, True, False, True

Q-8. The circumstances in which static analysis techniques are used to include_______________.

a. Calling structure analysis.

b. Data flow analysis.

c. Code defect analysis.

e. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-9. What is noted during a review, but not discussed?

a. Spelling errors.

b. Recommendations for handling defects.

c. Defects.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-10. What occurs if a document under review has more than three critical defects per page?

a. The review is not concluded until the defects are addressed.

b. The current review is concluded, the document is revised and then submitted to the review process once more.

c. The review is concluded.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-11. A description of software configuration, the test environment and an asset’s change history are elements of what? Select all that apply.

a. Test summary report.

b. Incident report.

c. Root cause analysis.

d. Risk analysis.

e. Test design specification.

Q-12. On what basis would you gauge the test execution process? Select all that apply.

a. Percentage of planned-for test preparation effort that’s complete.

b. Re-test results.

c. Test coverage of code.

d. Percentage of planned test cases that have been prepared.

e. Test milestone dates.

Q-13. During what phase of the test process are stakeholder needs considered so appropriate tests are created to address those needs. Select all that apply.

a. Test planning and monitoring.

b. Test analysis and design.

c. Test implementation and execution.

Q-14. Which metrics relate to test reporting? Select all that apply.

a. Test readiness.

b. Severity of defects.

c. Age of defects.

d. Test schedule slips.

e. Logic complexity.

Q-15. What test strategy supports the concurrent performance of test execution, reporting and control tasks? Select all that apply.

a. Heuristic test strategy.

b. Checklist-based test strategy.

c. Standard-compliant test strategy.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-16. Which of the following is a reason that a data quality assessment tool is used?

a. Find and expose the business and technical issues with data so that data cleansing and data enrichment processes can be executed across the organizational data using the appropriate data quality tools.

b. Simulate the environment in which a test object will run through the provision of mock objects, such as stubs or drivers.

c. Detects memory leaks, resource leaks, pointer problems and other program vulnerabilities by which an attacker may gain unauthorized access to the system resource.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-17. The method used to identify differences between one file and another or one database and another is_________________.

a. Unit test framework tool.

b. Test comparator tool.

c. Test-driven development tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-18. What tool is required to support testing individual units of software by allowing the tester to specify the desired behaviors of a unit, which equate to the requirements set by the business?

a. Test data preparation tool.

b. Test-driven development tool.

c. Model-based test tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. Which of the following is one way to classify unit testing? Select all that apply.

a. Testing objectives by test target.

b. General testing objectives.

c. Testing objectives by purpose.

A-1: a. Testing objectives by test target. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.1) (LO 1 Q-106)


Q-2. Which of the following is the best definition of a failure? Select all that apply.

a. An event in which a system is unsuccessful in performing a required function within a specified limit.

b. A defect that causes software to behave in unexpected and unplanned-for ways.

c. A mistake that’s committed at some point in the software life cycle.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-2: a. An event in which a system is unsuccessful in performing a required function within a specified limit. (FL 1.2.3) (LO 1.1.5) (LO 1 Q-107)


Q-3. Which of the following is a valid test implementation activity? Select all that apply.

a. Create test cases.

b. Create test data.

c. Identify required test infrastructure and tools.

d. Write test scripts for automated tests.

e. Create test item transmittal.

A-3: a. Create test cases. d. Write test scripts for automated tests. and e. Create test item transmittal. (FL 1.4.2) (LO 1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-108)


Q-4. A software product’s risk level is the result of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. A product’s technical characteristics.

b. The likelihood a threat event will occur.

c. The probable impact should the threat event occur.

A-4: b. The likelihood a threat event will occur. and d. The probable impact should the threat event occur. (FL 1.2.1) (LO 1.1.3) (LO 1 Q-109)


Q-5. Which of the following is a testing objective described by its purpose? Select all that apply.

a. Confirmation that software can be installed over a network.

b. Verification of a system’s physical design.

c. Improvement in a software product’s quality by the identification of failures and the removal of defects.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-5: a. Confirmation that software can be installed over a network. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.1) (LO 1 Q-110)


Q-6. What is the definition of dynamic analysis?

a. Execute software to evaluate the quality attributes of code.

b. Execute software to identify defects.

c. Execute software to identify system failures.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-6: A. Execute software to evaluate the quality attributes of code. and C. Execute software to identify system failures. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-106)

Q-7. Which of the following applies to an inspection?

Trained Moderator

No Preparation

Follow-up processes

Identifies defects

a. False, True, False, False

b. True, False, True, True

c. False, True, False, False

d. False, True, False, True

A-7: b. True, False, True and True. (FL 3.2.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-107)

Q-8. The circumstances in which static analysis techniques are used to include_______________.

a. Calling structure analysis.

b. Data flow analysis.

c. Code defect analysis.

e. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-8: a. Calling structure analysis. and b. Data flow analysis. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.3.3) (LO 3 Q-108)

Q-9. What is noted during a review, but not discussed?

a. Spelling errors.

b. Recommendations for handling defects.

c. Defects.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-9: a. Spelling errors. and b. Recommendations for handling defects. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (LO 3 Q-109)

Q-10. What occurs if a document under review has more than three critical defects per page?

a. The review is not concluded until the defects are addressed.

b. The current review is concluded, the document is revised and then submitted to the review process once more.

c. The review is concluded.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-10: b. The current review is concluded, the document is revised and then submitted to the review process once more. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (LO 3 Q-105)


Q-11. A description of software configuration, a description of the test environment and an asset’s change history are elements of what? Select all that apply.

a. Test summary report.

b. Incident report.

c. Root cause analysis.

d. Risk analysis.

e. Test design specification.

A-11: b. Incident report. (FL 5.6.1) (LO 5.6.1) (LO 5 Q-106)

Q-12. On what basis would you gauge the test execution process? Select all that apply.

a. Percentage of planned-for test preparation effort that’s complete.

b. Re-test results.

c. Test coverage of code.

d. Percentage of planned test cases that have been prepared.

e. Test milestone dates.

A-12: b. Re-test results. c. Test coverage of code. and e. Test milestone dates. (FL 5.2.1) (LO 5.3.1) (LO 5 Q-107)

Q-13. During what phase of the test process are stakeholder needs considered so appropriate tests are created to address those needs. Select all that apply.

a. Test planning and monitoring.

b. Test analysis and design.

c. Test implementation and execution.

A-13: b. Test analysis and design. (FL 1.4.2) (LO 5.2.2)

Q-14. Which metrics relate to test reporting? Select all that apply.

a. Test readiness.

b. Severity of defects.

c. Age of defects.

d. Test schedule slips.

e. Logic complexity.

A-14: b. Severity of defects c. Age of defects and e. Logic complexity (FL 5.3.2) (LO 5.3.2) (LO 5 Q-109)

Q-15. What test strategy supports the concurrent performance of test execution, reporting and control tasks? Select all that apply.

a. Heuristic test strategy.

b. Checklist-based test strategy.

c. Standard-compliant test strategy.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-15: a. Heuristic test strategy. (FL 5.2.2) (LO 5.2.3) (FL 5 Q-105)


Q-16. Which of the following is a reason that a data quality assessment tool is used?

a. Find and expose the business and technical issues with data so that data cleansing and data enrichment processes can be executed across the organizational data using the appropriate data quality tools.

b. Simulate the environment in which a test object will run through the provision of mock objects, such as stubs or drivers.

c. Detects memory leaks, resource leaks, pointer problems and other program vulnerabilities by which an attacker may gain unauthorized access to the system resource.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: a. Finds and exposes the business and technical issues with data so that data cleansing and data enrichment processes can be executed across the organizational data using the appropriate data quality tools. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.11) (LO 6 Q-106)

Q-17. The method used to identify differences between one file and another or one database and another is_________________.

a. Unit test framework tool.

b. Test comparator tool.

c. Test-driven development tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: b. Test comparator tool. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-107)

Q-18. What tool is required to support testing individual units of software by allowing the tester to specify the desired behaviors of a unit, which equate to the requirements set by the business?

a. Test data preparation tool.

b. Test-driven development tool.

c. Model-based test tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-18: b. Test driven development tool. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-108)

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