ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 21

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 21

QUESTIONS

Q-1. Which of the following is a general test objective? Select all that apply.

a. Identify failures, which improves software quality.

b. Gather data to support decision process.

c. Eliminate sources of identified risks.

d. Provide insight to the software testing process.

e. Instill confidence in the testing process.


Q-2. Identify the magnitude and sources of risks is an example of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Testing objectives by test target.

b. General testing objectives.

c. Testing objectives by purpose.


Q-3. Which of the following is the best definition of an incident? Select all that apply.

a. The failure of a work product to meet its requirements.

b. A system occurrence that’s not expected or planned for and that must be investigated.

c. A condition that deviates from an expected condition as described in a design document.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-4. Which of the following is an example of an “error?” Select all that apply.

a. A condition that deviates from an expected one, which is described in a requirements specification or another test basis.

b. The result of a human mistake that’s committed at some point in the software life cycle.

c. An imperfection in a work product that causes it to fail to meet its requirements.

d. An event in which a system is unsuccessful in performing a required function within a specified limit.

e. An imperfection or deficiency in a work product that causes it to fail to meet its requirements.


Q-5. Which of the following is an example of a testing objective by test target? Select all that apply.

a. Identify the magnitude and sources of risks that can be reduced by testing.

b. Verify a system’s physical design.

c. Confirm a software product works as expected in its operating environment.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-6. What occurs during a review’s kick-off meeting?

a. A moderator distributes the document under review to the review’s participants.

b. Moderator discusses the results of the review’s entry check.

c. The moderator discusses the review’s objectives and procedures.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-7. The checklists used by participants in a review may reflect the perspective of__________________?

a. Maintainer.

b. Sponsor.

c. User.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-8. Of what significance to software development products is static analysis?

a. Static analysis verifies that appropriate testing techniques have been used, which enhances code maintainability.

b. Static analysis produces metrics used in risk-based testing.

c. Static analysis can detect the omission of a requirement.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-9. What issues can be identified using static analysis?

a. Coding practice violations.

b. Efficiency and effectiveness losses throughout the testing process.

c. A risky implementation of software under test.

d. All of the above.

e None of the above.


Q-10. Which of the following is considered to be a test case preparation metric? Select all that apply.

a. Test coverage of requirements.

b. Test coverage of risks.

c. Percentage of the planned-for test environment effort that’s complete.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-11. Risk management is a process that directly _________________. Select all that apply.

a. Supports the management of performance limitations.

b. Supports the increase in the quality of software.

c. Supports an organization’s mission.

d. Supports the management of cost constraints.

e. Supports the on-time completion of a project.

Q-12. What statement regarding the disadvantages of independent testing is correct? Select all that apply.

a. Developers doubt the commitment of a tester to the achievement of the project team’s goals.

b. Some issues with the product under test that could be most readily dealt with by the test team, remain the responsibility of the developer.

c. The independent tester must assume the responsibility for project delays regardless of the origin of the delay.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-13. Which of the following risks can be managed through planning, defect management and good test design? Select all that apply.

a. Software product quality issues.

b. Test items that can’t be installed in the test environment.

c. Inadequate test environment.

Q-14. Which of the following risks can be managed through planning, defect management and good test design? Select all that apply.

a. Software product quality issues.

b. Test items that can’t be installed in the test environment.

c. Inadequate test environment.

Q-15. Risk directly pertains to which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. A test plan.

b. A work breakdown structure.

c. A master schedule.

d. A testing strategy.

e. Software quality.


Q-16. What is a requirement to use a security testing tool?

a. Gauge how an application behaves under heavy load conditions.

b. Measure the ease with which a component or application can be integrated in an environment and compare the measures to the system's portability requirement.

c. Conduct penetration testing to automate certain tasks to discover issues that may be difficult to find using manual analysis techniques.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-17. What is the significance of a monitoring tool?

a. Defines ranges for each data quality dimension to categorize data as high or low quality.

b. Identifies optimal system settings.

c. Reads data from the legacy system and writes it to the new system.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-18. The design of an information architecture, workflow, menu structure or website navigation paths requires the______________.

a. Usability testing tool.

b. Localization testing tool.

c. Portability testing tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. Which of the following is a general test objective? Select all that apply.

a. Identify failures, which improves software quality.

b. Gather data to support decision process.

c. Eliminate sources of identified risks.

d. Provide insight to the software testing process.

e. Instill confidence in the testing process.

A-1: b. Gather data to support decision process. and c. Eliminate sources of identified risks. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.1) (LO 1 Q-101)


Q-2. Identify the magnitude and sources of risks is an example of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Testing objectives by test target.

b. General testing objectives.

c. Testing objectives by purpose.

A-2: b. General testing objectives. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.1) (FL 1 Q-101)


Q-3. Which of the following is the best definition of an incident? Select all that apply.

a. The failure of a work product to meet its requirements.

b. A system occurrence that’s not expected or planned for and that must be investigated.

c. A condition that deviates from an expected condition as described in a design document.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-3: b. A system occurrence that’s not expected or planned for and that must be investigated. (FL 1.2.3) (LO 1.1.5) (LO 1 Q-103)


Q-4. Which of the following is an example of an “error?” Select all that apply.

a. A condition that deviates from an expected one, which is described in a requirements specification or another test basis.

b. The result of a human mistake that’s committed at some point in the software life cycle.

c. An imperfection in a work product that causes it to fail to meet its requirements.

d. An event in which a system is unsuccessful in performing a required function within a specified limit.

e. An imperfection or deficiency in a work product that causes it to fail to meet its requirements.

A-4: b. The result of a human mistake that’s committed at some point in the software life cycle. (FL 1.2.3) (LO 1.1.5) (LO 1 Q-104)


Q-5. Which of the following is an example of a testing objective by test target? Select all that apply.

a. Identify the magnitude and sources of risks that can be reduced by testing.

b. Verify a system’s physical design.

c. Confirm a software product works as expected in its operating environment.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-5: b. Verify a system’s physical design. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.1) (LO 1 Q-105)


Q-6. What occurs during a review’s kick-off meeting?

a. A moderator distributes the document under review to the review’s participants.

b. Moderator discusses the results of the review’s entry check.

c. The moderator discusses the review’s objectives and procedures.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-6: a. A moderator distributes the document under review to the review’s participants. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (LO3 Q-101)

Q-7. The checklists used by participants in a review may reflect the perspective of__________________?

a. Maintainer.

b. Sponsor.

c. User.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-7: a. Maintainer. and C. User. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (LO 3 G-102)

Q-8. Of what significance to software development products is static analysis?

a. Static analysis verifies that appropriate testing techniques have been used, which enhances code maintainability.

b. Static analysis produces metrics used in risk-based testing.

c. Static analysis can detect the omission of a requirement.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-8: b. Static analysis produces metrics used in risk-based testing. and c. Static analysis can detect the omission of a requirement. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.1.2) (LO 3 Q-103)

Q-9. What issues can be identified using static analysis?

a. Coding practice violations.

b. Efficiency and effectiveness losses throughout the testing process.

c. A risky implementation of software under test.

d. All of the above.

e None of the above.

A-9: a. Coding practice violations. and c. A risky implementation of software under test. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.1.2) (FL 3 Q-100)


Q-10. Which of the following is considered to be a test case preparation metric? Select all that apply.

a. Test coverage of requirements.

b. Test coverage of risks.

c. Percentage of the planned-for test environment effort that’s complete.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-10: c. Percentage of the planned-for test environment effort that’s complete. (FL 5.3.1) (LO 5.3.1)


Q-11. Risk management is a process that directly _________________. Select all that apply.

a. Supports the management of performance limitations.

b. Supports the increase in the quality of software.

c. Supports an organization’s mission.

d. Supports the management of cost constraints.

e. Supports the on-time completion of a project.

A-11: a. Supports the management of performance limitations. d. Supports the management of cost constraints. and e. Supports the on-time completion of a project. (FL 5.5.3) (LO 5.5.5) (LO 5 Q-102)

Q-12. What statement regarding the disadvantages of independent testing is correct? Select all that apply.

a. Developers doubt the commitment of a tester to the achievement of the project team’s goals.

b. Some issues with the product under test that could be most readily dealt with by the test team, remain the responsibility of the developer.

c. The independent tester must assume the responsibility for project delays regardless of the origin of the delay.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-12: a. Developers doubt the commitment of a tester to the achievement of the project team’s goals. (FL 5.1.1) (LO 5.1.1) (LO 5 Q-103)

Q-13. Which of the following risks can be managed through planning, defect management and good test design? Select all that apply.

a. Software product quality issues.

b. Test items that can’t be installed in the test environment.

c. Inadequate test environment.

A-13: a. Software product quality issues. (FL 5.5.1) (LO 5.5.4) (LO 5 Q-104)

Q-14. Which of the following risks can be managed through planning, defect management and good test design? Select all that apply.

a. Software product quality issues.

b. Test items that can’t be installed in the test environment.

c. Inadequate test environment.

A-14: a. Software product quality issues. (FL 5.5.2) (LO 5.5.4) (LO 5 Q-104)

Q-15. Risk directly pertains to which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. A test plan.

b. A work breakdown structure.

c. A master schedule.

d. A testing strategy.

e. Software quality.

A-15: b. A work breakdown structure. and c. A master schedule. (FL 5.5.3) (LO 5.5.5) (LO 5 Q-102)


Q-16. What is a requirement to use a security testing tool?

a. Gauge how an application behaves under heavy load conditions.

b. Measure the ease with which a component or application can be integrated in an environment and compare the measures to the system's portability requirement.

c. Conduct penetration testing to automate certain tasks to discover issues that may be difficult to find using manual analysis techniques.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: c. Conduct penetration testing to automate certain tasks to discover issues that may be difficult to find using manual analysis techniques. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1 (LO 6 Q-101)

Q-17. What is the significance of a monitoring tool?

a. Defines ranges for each data quality dimension to categorize data as high or low quality.

b. Identifies optimal system settings.

c. Reads data from the legacy system and writes it to the new system.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: b. Identifies optimal system settings. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-102)

Q-18. The design of an information architecture, workflow, menu structure or website navigation paths requires the______________.

a. Usability testing tool.

b. Localization testing tool.

c. Portability testing tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-18: a. Usability testing tool. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-103)

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