ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 19

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 19

QUESTIONS

Q-1. Which of the following is a benefit of the verification that a software product adheres to its requirements? Select all that apply.

a. Verification increases the risk that the product will contribute to a future negative consequence.

b. Verification increases confidence in the product’s quality.

c. Verification decreases the risk that a product will fail to meet its predefined objectives.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-2. A word displayed onscreen is misspelled. This is an example of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. A communication error.

b. A standards defect.

c. A syntactic error.

d. A typographical defect.


Q-3. Which of the following are ways in which software testing efforts contribute to the production of quality products? Select all that apply.

a. Provides assurance of the quality of a software product.

b. Identifies defects and once the defects are fixed a software product’s quality increases.

c. By identifying defects that the development team can address, testing increases the risk level associated with a product’s quality.

d. Testing determines the degree a product’s characteristics are identical to its requirements.

e. By conducting root cause analysis in regards to a product’s defects, a development team can improve its processes.


Q-4. Which of the following is a common objective of testing? Select all that apply.

a. Gather information to serve as a decision basis.

b. Instill confidence in the testing process.

c. Reduce the magnitude of errors.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-5. Which of the following testing principles is associated with the Pesticide Paradox? Select all that apply.

a. Early testing is essential to efficiently identify defects.

b. Testing processes can confirm the presence of defects in a software work product, but not the absence of them.

c. A small number of modules often contain the majority of defects found during pre-release testing.

d. Exhaustive testing is not a feasible testing strategy except in trivial circumstances.

e. A single testing strategy will neither expose all types of defects nor properly evaluate a software product’s capabilities.


Q-6. Which of the following entries show the phases of a formal review process in the correct order?

a. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Individual preparations, Kick-off, Follow-up.

b. Follow-up, Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Individual preparations, Kick-off.

c. Planning, Kick-off, Individual preparations, Review meeting, Rework, Follow-up.

d. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick-off, Individual preparations, Follow-up,


Q-7. What test effort best ensures that resource leaks are identified?

a. Dynamic testing.

b. Static testing.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.


Q-8. In what ways, does an organization’s management support the review process?

a. Participates throughout the review’s life cycle.

b. Allocates human and financial resources to the review process for a specific period.

c. Establishes the appropriate reward system.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-9: Which of the following roles does not participate in a technical review?

a. Analyst.

b. Manager.

c. Developer.

d. Tester.

Q-10. Which of the following is an activity of the review planning phase?

a. Log defects.

b. Allocate roles to individuals.

c. Explain the documents to the participants.

d. Gather metrics.

e. None of the above.


Q-11. How is the risk of excessive change managed? Select all that apply.

a. Software change management.

b. Meticulous test design.

c. Minimum test documentation.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-12. The beginning of a test effort can be determined by what? Select all that apply.

a. Test environment readiness.

b. Test data adequacy.

c. Fully developed code.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-13. The entry criteria for unit testing include what? Select all that apply.

a. The Test Planning phase of the test effort is completed.

b. Critical bugs have been fixed and closed.

c. The component is subject to formal configuration and release management control.

Q-14. Ambiguous requirements, a highly complex system and a design of low quality are classified as what? Select all that apply.

a. Organizational issues.

b. Technical issues.

c. Test environment issues.

Q-15. You want to proceed with system testing. What pre-requisites must be satisfied first? Select all that apply.

a. Integration testing is complete.

b. The test planning phase of the test effort is complete.

c. All bug fixes are complete.

d. Testing has confirmed that the system meets its functional requirements.

e. Test cases have been executed.


Q-16. How do you identify code anomalies or defects?

a. Tool support for dynamic testing.

b. Tool support for static testing.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

Q-17. In what circumstance is a test design tool used?

a. To support the creation of test specifications.

b. To generate test cases from a formal or semi-formal model.

c. To extract data records from files, a database or data transmissions to serve as test data.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-18: How do you create an executable specification of application acceptance criteria?

a. Test execution and logging tool.

b. Unit test framework tool.

c. Acceptance test-driven development tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. Which of the following is a benefit of the verification that a software product adheres to its requirements? Select all that apply.

a. Verification increases the risk that the product will contribute to a future negative consequence.

b. Verification increases confidence in the product’s quality.

c. Verification decreases the risk that a product will fail to meet its predefined objectives.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-1: b. Verification increases confidence in the product’s quality. and c. Verification decreases the risk that a product will fail to meet its predefined objectives. (FL 1.2.2) (LO 1.1.4) (LO 1 Q-91)


Q-2. A word displayed onscreen is misspelled. This is an example of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. A communication error.

b. A standards defect.

c. A syntactic error.

d. A standards defect.

e. A typographical defect.

A-2: c. A syntactic error. (FL 1.2.3) (LO 1.1.5) (LO 1 Q-92)


Q-3. Which of the following are ways in which software testing efforts contribute to the production of quality products? Select all that apply.

a. Provides assurance of the quality of a software product.

b. Identifies defects and once the defects are fixed a software product’s quality increases.

c. By identifying defects that the development team can address, testing increases the risk level associated with a product’s quality.

d. Testing determines the degree a product’s characteristics are identical to its requirements.

e. By conducting root cause analysis in regards to a product’s defects, a development team can improve its processes.

A-3: a. Provides assurance of the quality of a software product.b. Identifies defects and once the defects are fixed a software product’s quality increases. and e. By conducting root cause analysis in regards to a product’s defects, a development team can improve its processes. (FL 1.2.2) (LO 1.1.4) (LO 1 Q-93)


Q-4. Which of the following is a common objective of testing? Select all that apply.

a. Gather information to serve as a decision basis.

b. Instill confidence in the testing process.

c. Reduce the magnitude of errors.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-4: a. Gather information to serve as a decision basis. (FL 1.2.1) (LO 1.2.1) (LO 1 Q-94)


Q-5. Which of the following testing principles is associated with the Pesticide Paradox? Select all that apply.

a. Early testing is essential to efficiently identify defects.

b. Testing processes can confirm the presence of defects in a software work product, but not the absence of them.

c. A small number of modules often contain the majority of defects found during pre-release testing.

d. Exhaustive testing is not a feasible testing strategy except in trivial circumstances.

e. A single testing strategy will neither expose all types of defects nor properly evaluate a software product’s capabilities.

A-5: e. A single testing strategy will neither expose all types of defects nor properly evaluate a software product’s capabilities. (FL 1.3.1) (LO 1.3.1) (LO 5 Q-90)


Q-6. Which of the following entries show the phases of a formal review process in the correct order?

a. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Individual preparations, Kick-off, Follow-up.

b. Follow-up, Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Individual preparations, Kick-off.

c. Planning, Kick-off, Individual preparations, Review meeting, Rework, Follow-up.

d. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick-off, Individual preparations, Follow-up,

A-6: d. Planning, Kick-off, Individual preparations, review meeting, rework and follow-up. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (LO 3 Q-91)


Q-7. What test effort best ensures that resource leaks are identified?

a. Dynamic testing.

b. Static testing.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

A-7: a. Dynamic testing. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-92)


Q-8. In what ways, does an organization’s management support the review process?

a. Participates throughout the review’s life cycle.

b. Allocates human and financial resources to the review process for a specific period.

c. Establishes the appropriate reward system.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-8: b. Allocates human and financial resources to the review process for a specific period. and c. Establishes the appropriate reward system. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.1.2) (LO 3 Q-93)


Q-9: Which of the following roles does not participate in a technical review?

a. Analyst.

b. Manager.

c. Developer.

d. Tester.

A-9: b. Manager (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (LO 3 Q-94)

Q-10. Which of the following is an activity of the review planning phase?

a. Log defects.

b. Allocate roles to individuals.

c. Explain the documents to the participants.

d. Gather metrics.

e. None of the above.

A-10: b. Allocate roles to individuals. (FL 3.2.1) (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (LO 3 Q-90)


Q-11. How is the risk of excessive change managed? Select all that apply.

a. Software change management.

b. Meticulous test design.

c. Minimum test documentation.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-11: d. All of the above. (FL 5.5.1) (LO 5.5.4) (LO 5 Q-91)

Q-12. The beginning of a test effort can be determined by what? Select all that apply.

a. Test environment readiness.

b. Test data adequacy.

c. Fully developed code.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-12: a. Test environment readiness. and b. Test data adequacy. (FL 5.2.3) (LO 5.2.9) (LO 5 Q-92)

Q-13. The entry criteria for unit testing include what? Select all that apply.

a. The Test Planning phase of the test effort is completed.

b. Critical bugs have been fixed and closed.

c. The component is subject to formal configuration and release management control.

A-13: a. The Test Planning phase of the test effort is completed. (FL 5.2.3) (LO 5.2.9) (LO 5 Q-93)

Q-14. Ambiguous requirements, a highly complex system and a design of low quality are classified as what? Select all that apply.

a. Organizational issues.

b. Technical issues.

c. Test environment issues.

A-14: b. Technical issues. (FL 5.5.2) (LO 5.5.4) (LO 5 Q-94)

Q-15. You want to proceed with system testing. What pre-requisites must be satisfied first? Select all that apply.

a. Integration testing is complete.

b. The test planning phase of the test effort is complete.

c. All bug fixes are complete.

d. Testing has confirmed that the system meets its functional requirements.

e. Test cases have been executed.

A-15: a. Integration testing is complete. and c. All bug fixes are complete. (FL 5.2.3) (LO 5.2.9) (LO 5 Q-91)


Q-16. How do you identify code anomalies or defects?

a. Tool support for dynamic testing.

b. Tool support for static testing.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

A-16: b. Tool support for static testing. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 16 Q-91)

Q-17. In what circumstance is a test design tool used?

a. To support the creation of test specifications.

b. To generate test cases from a formal or semi-formal model.

c. To extract data records from files, a database or data transmissions to serve as test data.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: a. To support the creation of test specifications (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-92)

Q-18: How do you create an executable specification of application acceptance criteria?

a. Test execution and logging tool.

b. Unit test framework tool.

c. Acceptance test-driven development tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-18: c. Acceptance test-driven development tool. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-93)

Subscribe

ASTQB Quiz CENTRAL is not associated with either ASTQB.org or ISTQB.org.