ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 18

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 18

QUESTIONS

Q-1. Which of the following is a countermeasure to the Absence of Fallacy theory? Select all that apply.

a. The context in which testing occurs should influence the testing approach.

b. Design tests to confirm a software product meets a user’s requirements.

c. Begin testing in the early stages of the SDLC.

d. Several testing methods and test approaches should be used when testing software products.

e. The testing effort should be guided by the expected defect density of modules.


Q-2. Which of the following describes the primary purpose of verification and validation processes? Select all that apply.

a. To support the efforts of development teams to build quality systems.

b. To assess products throughout the software development life cycle.

c. To assess the degree that a software product adheres to its stated requirements.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-3 Which of the following describes the effect of the failure of a safety-critical system? Select all that apply.

a. The loss of sensitive data.

b. The inability to achieve strategic objectives.

c. The inability to accomplish organizational tactics.

d. The loss, injury or death of people and other living things.

e. None of the above.


Q-4. Which of the following is the testing objective of acceptance testing? Select all that apply.

a. Verify the function of a single, separately testable software element.

b. Verify the interactions between software components.

c. Verify the logical design of the system.

d. Verify the performance of the software.

e. Verify the system behaviors comply with customer requirements.


Q-5. A program does not perform the actions needed to complete a process as expected. What kind of error is this? Select all that apply.

a. Control flow error.

b. Syntactic error.

c. Functionality error.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-6. Which of the following supports the identification of structural defects, rather than functional defects?

a. Dynamic analysis.

b. Static analysis.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.


Q-7. What activity influences the type of review that’s conducted and when a review is scheduled?

a. Product risk assessment.

b. Project risk assessment.

c. None of the above.


Q-8. A technique used for a review must suit_________________.

a. The review’s objectives.

b. The review’s participants.

c. The test level.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-9. What are the benefits of static analysis?

a. The techniques are relatively cost effective in that they can be performed offline.

b. The results of the techniques support the refinement of a review’s focus.

c. The techniques support the calculation of the cyclomatic complexity metric.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-10. True or False: Review activities are defined as key activities of a formal project plan.

a. True.

b. False.


Q-11. Which of the following activities are scheduled during test planning? Select all that apply.

a. Test design.

b. Integration of test process and SDLC.

c. Test implementation.

d. Test documentation.

e. Risk management.

Q-12. The evaluation of exit criteria is determined by what? Select all that apply.

a. Test reporting.

b. Test execution.

c. Test monitoring.

d. Test analysis.

e. Test control.

Q-13. Which of the following is a possible source on which a metrics-based estimation approach relies? Select all that apply.

a. Historical data for similar projects.

b. The judgement of experts.

c. The “top down” estimates for former similar projects.

d. The “bottom-up” estimates for former similar projects.

e. A team estimate of the testing end date.

Q-14. What metric should be monitored during test execution? Select all that apply.

a. Percentage of planned test cases completed.

b. Number of incomplete test environments.

c. Percentage of requirements for which test cases have been created.

d. Number of defects identified and fixed.

Q-15. Test activities that are grouped together is referred to as what? Select all that apply.

a. Test type.

b. Test strategy.

c. Test level.

Q-16. What tool conducts code reviews to examine source code to find and fix mistakes introduced into an application in the development phase?

a. Performance testing tool.

b. Data quality assessment tool.

c. Security testing tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-17. Why is a test comparator tool used?

a. Compares transient events that occur during test execution.

b. Compares data stores after the execution of tests.

c. Instruments the code under test.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-18. What is a valid benefit of a test execution and logging tool?

a. Compares screens, elements, links, controls, objects and values during test execution.

b. Supports the creation of an executable specification of application acceptance criteria.

c. Provides tool support for static testing.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. Which of the following is a countermeasure to the “Absence of Fallacy” theory? Select all that apply.

a. The context in which testing occurs should influence the testing approach.

b. Design tests to confirm a software product meets a user’s requirements.

c. Begin testing in the early stages of the SDLC.

d. Several testing methods and test approaches should be used when testing software products.

e. The testing effort should be guided by the expected defect density of modules.

A-1: b. Design tests to confirm a software product meets a user’s requirements and c. Begin testing in the early stages of the SDLC. (FL 1.3.1) (LO 1.3.1) (LO 1 Q-86)


Q-2. Which of the following describes the primary purpose of verification and validation processes? Select all that apply.

a. To support the efforts of development teams to build quality systems.

b. To assess products throughout the software development life cycle.

c. To assess the degree that a software product adheres to its stated requirements.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-2: a. To support the efforts of development teams to build quality systems. (FL 1.2.2) (LO 1.1.4) (LO 1 Q-87)


Q-3. Which of the following describes the effect of the failure of a safety-critical system? Select all that apply.

a. The loss of sensitive data.

b. The inability to achieve strategic objectives.

c. The inability to accomplish organizational tactics.

d. The loss, injury or death of people and other living things.

e. None of the above.

A-3: d. The loss, injury or death of people and other living things. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.1.1) (LO 1 Q-88)


Q-4. Which of the following is the testing objective of acceptance testing? Select all that apply.

a. Verify the function of a single, separately testable software element.

b. Verify the interactions between software components.

c. Verify the logical design of the system.

d. Verify the performance of the software.

e. Verify the system behaviors comply with customer requirements.

A-4: e. Verify the system behaviors comply with customer requirements. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.2) (LO 1 Q-89)


Q-5. A program does not perform the actions needed to complete a process as expected. What kind of error is this? Select all that apply.

a. Control flow error.

b. Syntactic error.

c. Functionality error.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-5: a. Control flow error. (FL 1.2.3) (LO 1.1.5) (LO 1 Q-90)


Q-6. Which of the following supports the identification of structural, rather than functional defects?

a. Dynamic analysis.

b. Static analysis.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

A-6: a. Dynamic analysis. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (L) 3 Q-86)


Q-7. What activity influences the type of review that’s conducted and when a review is scheduled?

a. Product risk assessment.

b. Project risk assessment.

c. None of the above.

A-7: b. Project risk assessment. (FL 3.2.3) (LO 3.2.2) (LO 3 Q-87)

Q-8. A technique used for a review must suit_________________.

a. The review’s objectives.

b. The review’s participants.

c. The test level.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-8: d. All of the above. (FL 3.2.3) (LO 3.2.2) (LO 3 Q-88)

Q-9. What are the benefits of static analysis?

a. The techniques are relatively cost effective in that they can be performed offline.

b. The results of the techniques support the refinement of a review’s focus.

c. The techniques support the calculation of the cyclomatic complexity metric.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-9: d. All of the above. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.1.2) (LO 3 Q-89)


Q-10. True or False: Review activities are defined as key activities of a formal project plan.

a. True.

b. False.

A-10: a. True. (FL 3.2.5) (LO 3.2.3) (LO 3 Q-85)


Q-11. Which of the following activities are scheduled during test planning? Select all that apply.

a. Test design.

b. Integration of test process and SDLC.

c. Test implementation.

d. Test documentation.

e. Risk management.

A-11: a. Test design. and c. Test implementation. (FL 5.2.4) (LO 5.2.6) (LO 5 Q-86)

Q-12. The evaluation of exit criteria is determined by what? Select all that apply.

a. Test reporting.

b. Test execution.

c. Test monitoring.

d. Test analysis.

e. Test control.

A-12: b. Test execution. (FL 5.2.3) (LO 5.2.9) (LO 5 Q-87)

Q-13. Which of the following is a possible source on which a metrics-based estimation approach relies? Select all that apply.

a. Historical data for similar projects.

b. The judgement of experts.

c. The “top down” estimates for former similar projects.

d. The “bottom-up” estimates for former similar projects.

e. A team estimate of the testing end date.

A-13: a. Historical data for similar projects. (FL 5.2.6) (LO 5.2.8) (LO 5 Q-88)

Q-14. What metric should be monitored during test execution? Select all that apply.

a. Percentage of planned test cases completed.

b. Number of incomplete test environments.

c. Percentage of requirements for which test cases have been created.

d. Number of defects identified and fixed.

A-14: d. Number of defects identified and fixed. (FL 5.3.1) (LO 5.3.1) (L) 5 Q-89)

Q-15. Test activities that are grouped together is referred to as what? Select all that apply.

a. Test type.

b. Test strategy.

c. Test level.

A-15: c. Test level. (FL 2.2.1)


Q-16. What tool conducts code reviews to examine source code to find and fix mistakes introduced into an application in the development phase?

a. Performance testing tool.

b. Data quality assessment tool.

c. Security testing tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: c. Security testing tool (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-86)

Q-17. Why is a test comparator tool used Y?

a. Compares transient events that occur during test execution.

b. Compares data stores after the execution of tests.

c. Instruments the code under test.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: a. Compares transient events that occur during test execution. and b. Compares data stores after the execution of tests. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-87)

Q-18. What is a valid benefit of a test execution and logging tool?

a. Compares screens, elements, links, controls, objects and values during test execution.

b. Supports the creation of an executable specification of application acceptance criteria.

c. Provides tool support for static testing.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-18: a. Compares screens, elements, links, controls, objects and values during test execution. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-88)

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