ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 17

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 17

QUESTIONS

Q-1. Which of the following is an example of a business-critical system? Select all that apply.

a. The failure of the system negatively affects the ability to achieve tactical goals.

b. A system that processes financial transactions is a business-critical system.

c. A system that enhances employee productivity is a business-critical system.

d. The failure of a business-critical system can result in the loss of sensitive data.


Q-2. Which of the following is a valid origin of a defect? Select all that apply.

a. A word is misspelled.

b. The command a user needs to initiate a function is absent.

c. An incorrect formula is used to calculate a figure.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-3. Which of the following is an example of a logic defect? Select all that apply.

a. The wrong test cases are used.

b. The wrong test basis is used.

c. The program does not perform the actions needed to complete a process as expected.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-4. You want to identify bugs in low-level structural elements, such as lines of code. How do you do so? Select all that apply.

a. Integration testing.

b. Unit testing.

c. System testing.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-5. Which of the following describes a possible effect of the failure of a supply chain management system? Select all that apply.

a. The loss of sensitive data.

b. The inability to achieve tactical objectives.

c. The death of employees.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-6. Which of the following is a false statement regarding static testing?

a. Static testing requires the execution of code.

b. Static testing includes reviews and inspections.

c. Static testing may include measuring a program’s cyclomatic complexity.

e. All the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-7. What is a benefit of static analysis?

a. Supports risk analysis activities.

b. Supports cost analysis activities.

c. Supports operations analysis activities.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-8. True or False: A review’s success is based on defects found.

a. True.

b. False.

Q-9. During a review, metrics are selected to:

a. Track employee performance during the review process.

b. Track development costs reduced by the conduct of the review.

c. Track the efficiencies gained.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-10. What is the primary purpose of static analysis?

a. Demonstrate the proper functioning of an application.

b. Validate a product’s logical design.

c. Detect the defects.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-11. Which of the following is a true statement regarding test planning? Select all that apply.

a. A contingency plan is an element of a test plan.

b. A contingency plan is not an element of a test plan, but rather a separate plan.

c. Neither a. nor b.

Q-12. Collects performance metrics is a function of ________________. Select all that apply.

a. The test manager.

b. The tester.

c. Neither the test manager nor the tester.

Q-13. Identify a benefit of independent testing within an organization. Select all that apply.

a. The independent tester views the software under test with preconceived notions regarding its requirements, the product design and the product itself.

b. The independent tester is burdened with a creator bias due to his membership in the development organization tasked with designing and building the software product.

c. An independent tester has no vested interest in affirming the assumptions of a developer regarding the software under test, so his evaluation of a software product is likely to be an objective one.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-14. Which of the following is a valid benefit of independent testing? Select all that apply.

a. A tester has a vested interest in affirming a developer’s assumptions regarding software under test.

b. Tester’s suppositions regarding a product’s design ore requirements are unbiased.

c. A tester may receive credit for the production of software of high quality.

Q-15. The ability to fairly gauge the degree that software adheres to quality standards and documented requirements is best described as a characteristic of what? Select all that apply.

a. Tester skills and experience.

b. Independent testing.

c. Tester training.


Q-16. Which of the following is a function of a usability testing tool?

a. Finds and exposes the business and technical issues with data so that data cleansing and data enrichment processes can be executed across the organizational data using the appropriate data quality tools.

b. Designs an information architecture, workflow, menu structure or website navigation paths.

c. Analyzes, verifies and reports the usage of a system resource and warns of impending service provision issues.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-17. What is required to identify differences between one file and another, one database and another and so on?

a. Performance testing tool.

b. Dynamic analysis tool.

c. Test comparator tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-18. What tasks are performed by a data quality assessment tool?

a. Reads data from the legacy system and writes it to the new system.

b. Tests the translations that a software product completes by reviewing content and test reports.

c. Defines ranges for each data quality dimension to categorize data as high or low quality.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. Which of the following is an example of a business-critical system? Select all that apply.

a. The failure of the system negatively affects the ability to achieve tactical goals.

b. A system that processes financial transactions is a business-critical system.

c. A system that enhances employee productivity is a business-critical system.

d. The failure of a business-critical system can result in the loss of sensitive data.

A-1: b. A system that processes financial transactions is a business-critical system. and c. A system that enhances employee productivity is a business-critical system. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.1.1) (FL 1 Q-81)


Q-2. Which of the following is a valid origin of a defect? Select all that apply.

a. A word is misspelled.

b. The command a user needs to initiate a function is absent.

c. An incorrect formula is used to calculate a figure.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-2: d. All of the above. (FL 1.2.3) (LO 1.1.5) (LO 1 Q-82)


Q-3. Which of the following is an example of a logic defect? Select all that apply.

a. The wrong test cases are used.

b. The wrong test basis is used.

c. The program does not perform the actions needed to complete a process as expected.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-3: a. The wrong test cases are used. (FL 1.2.3) (LO 1.1.5) (LO 1 Q-83)


Q-4. You want to identify bugs in low-level structural elements, such as lines of code. How do you do so? Select all that apply.

a. Integration testing.

b. Unit testing.

c. System testing.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-4: b. Unit testing. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.2) (LO 1 Q-84)


Q-5. Which of the following describes a possible effect of the failure of a supply chain management system? Select all that apply.

a. The loss of sensitive data.

b. The inability to achieve tactical objectives.

c. The death of employees.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-5: b. The inability to achieve tactical objectives. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.1.1) (LO 1 Q-85)


Q-6. Which of the following is a false statement regarding static testing?

a. Static testing requires the execution of code.

b. Static testing includes reviews and inspections.

c. Static testing may include measuring a program’s cyclomatic complexity.

e. All the above.

e. None of the above.

A-6: b . Static testing includes reviews and inspections. and c. Static testing may include measuring a program’s cyclomatic complexity. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-80)

Q-7. What is a benefit of static analysis?

a. Supports risk analysis activities.

b. Supports cost analysis activities.

c. Supports operations analysis activities.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-7: a. Supports risk analysis activities. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-82)

Q-8. True or False: A review’s success is based on defects found.

a. True.

b. False.

A-8: b. False. (FL 3.2.5) (LO 3.2.3) (LO 3 Q-83)

Q-9. During a review, metrics are selected to:

a. Track employee performance during the review process.

b. Track development costs reduced by the conduct of the review.

c. Track the efficiencies gained.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-9: b. Track development costs reduced by the conduct of the review. and c. Track the efficiencies gained. (FL 3.2.5) (LO 3.2.3) (LO 3 Q-84)


Q-10. What is the primary purpose of static analysis?

a. Demonstrate the proper functioning of an application.

b. Validate a product’s logical design.

c. Detect the defects.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-10: c. Detect defects. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.1.2) (LO 3 Q-80)


Q-11. Which of the following is a true statement regarding test planning? Select all that apply.

a. A contingency plan is an element of a test plan.

b. A contingency plan is not an element of a test plan, but rather a separate plan.

c. Neither a. nor b.

A-11: a. A contingency plan is an element of a test plan. (FL 5.2.1) (LO 5.2.1) (LO 5 Q-81)

Q-12. Collects performance metrics is a function of ________________. Select all that apply.

a. The test manager.

b. The tester.

c. Neither the test manager nor the tester.

A-12: b. The tester. (FL 5.1.2) (LO 5.1.4) (LO 5 Q-82)

Q-13. Identify a benefit of independent testing within an organization. Select all that apply.

a. The independent tester views the software under test with preconceived notions regarding its requirements, the product design and the product itself.

b. The independent tester is burdened with a creator bias due to his membership in the development organization tasked with designing and building the software product.

c. An independent tester has no vested interest in affirming the assumptions of a developer regarding the software under test, so his evaluation of a software product is likely to be an objective one.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-13: c. An independent tester has no vested interest in affirming the assumptions of a developer regarding the software under test. (FL 5.1.1) (LO 5.1.2) (LO 5 Q-83)

Q-14. Which of the following is a valid benefit of independent testing? Select all that apply.

a. A tester has a vested interest in affirming a developer’s assumptions regarding software under test.

b. Tester’s suppositions regarding a product’s design ore requirements are unbiased.

c. A tester may receive credit for the production of software of high quality.

A-14: b. Tester’s suppositions regarding a product’s design ore requirements are unbiased. (FL 5.1.1) (LO 5.1.2) (LO 5 Q-84)

Q-15. The ability to fairly gauge the degree that software adheres to quality standards and documented requirements is best described as a characteristic of what? Select all that apply.

a. Tester skills and experience.

b. Independent testing.

c. Tester training.

A-15: b. Independent testing. (FL 5.1.1) (LO 5.1.1) (LO 5 Q-80)


Q-16. Which of the following is a function of a Usability Testing Tool?

a. Finds and exposes the business and technical issues with data so that data cleansing and data enrichment processes can be executed across the organizational data using the appropriate data quality tools.

b. Designs an information architecture, workflow, menu structure or website navigation paths.

c. Analyzes, verifies and reports the usage of a system resource and warns of impending service provision issues.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: b. Designs an information architecture, workflow, menu structure or website navigation paths. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-81)

Q-17. What is required to identify differences between one file and another, one database and another and so on?

a. Performance testing tool.

b. Dynamic analysis tool.

c. Test comparator tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: FL 6.1.1 C. Test comparator tool (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-82)

Q-18. What tasks are performed by a data quality assessment tool?

a. Reads data from the legacy system and writes it to the new system.

b. Tests the translations that a software product completes by reviewing content and test reports.

c. Defines ranges for each data quality dimension to categorize data as high or low quality.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-18: c. Defines ranges for each data quality dimension to categorize data as high or low quality. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-83)

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