ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 16

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 16

QUESTIONS

Q-1. Which of the following is an environmental factor that can damage hardware, which can contribute to software defects? Select all that apply.

a. A hardware interface defect.

b. A strong magnetic field.

c. A portability defect.

d. A radiation burst.

e. Pollution.


Q-2. Which of the following is a way in which testing supports risk management? Select all that apply.

a. Testing identifies risks that must be mitigated.

b. Testing provides risk management decision-support.

c. Testing supports the risk assessment process.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-3. Which of the following is a justification for software testing? Select all that apply.

a. Testing increases the probability that a defect will prevent a software product from functioning as it should.

b. Testing confirms that a software product works as it should.

c. Testing improves an employee’s skills.

d. Testing supports the identification and removal of defects before the phase in which the defects are introduced.

e. Testing is a means to confirm that a software product is defect-free.


Q-4. Which of the following best describes the term “anomaly?” Select all that apply.

a. A condition that deviates from an expected one, which is described in a requirements specification or another test basis.

b. The result of a human mistake that’s committed at some point in the software life cycle.

c. An imperfection in a work product that causes it to fail to meet its requirements.

d. An event in which a system is unsuccessful in performing a required function within a specified limit.

e. An imperfection or deficiency in a work product that causes it to fail to meet its requirements.


Q-5. Which of the following is a test analysis test activity? Select all that apply.

a. Compare actual progress with planned-for progress.

b. Identify test basis.

c. Evaluate testability of test basis.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-6. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable static analysis test objective?

a. To confirm that a system’s requirements have been met.

b. To confirm a product is free of defects.

c. To confirm a system meets the stated requirements of a target market.

d. All of the above.

e None of the above.

Q-7. During component testing and integration testing, developers may______________________.

a. Analyze software code in terms of its compliance with organizational standards.

b. Analyze software code in terms of its compliance with programming standards.

c. Analyze software code in terms of its compliance with business best practices.

Q-8. Which of the following group of options are true regarding review processes?

a. The process is led by a trained moderator; The process entails a documented defect-detection process that includes peers and technical experts; A technical lead may review designs and code; The work product’s author leads the process.

b. The process may be quite formal or informal; The process includes metrics gathering; Participants assume well-defined roles; May take the form of pair programming.

c. The process takes place in an open-ended session; Ideally, a technical lead leads the review; The process may take the form of a dry run; The primary purpose is to confirm the software meets user requirements.

d. The process involves documented rules and checklists; The process may take the form of a dry run; The process may involve a scribe; The process must be documented by a scribe.


Q-9. What statements are correct regarding a review?

a. A static technique the supports evaluation of a software work product at its completion or other points in SDLC.

b. Verifies document content.

c. Educate review participants.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-10. What factors influence the success of a review?

a. Management fosters an environment in which review participants relay information about defects in a constructive way.

b. Appropriate tools are available to support well-defined review activities.

c. Testers gain information needed to conduct testing early in the SDLC.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-11. A test procedure__________________. Select all that apply.

a. Is directly referenced in a test execution schedule.

b. Accounts for related factors, including technical and logical dependencies.

c. Is completed during the Test planning phase of the test effort.

Q-12. Product standards, the quality of the test object, and a first-time-right defect fix policy are examples of what? Select all that apply.

a. Factors that influence the test team member selection process.

b. Factors that influence a testing effort.

c. Factors that influence a test schedule.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-13. Which of the following is a step in the test design specification creation process? Select all that apply.

a. Test approach is selected.

b. Risk analysis is performed.

c. Testable items are identified.

d. Test cases are produced.

e. Test procedure documents are produced.

Q-14. Which of the following is an activity of the test implementation and execution phase of the test process? Select all that apply.

a. Creation of test cases.

b. Creation of Test procedures.

c. Creation of test design specification.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-15. For what purpose is a test plan created? Select all that apply.

a. Specifies tool and software requirements.

b. States the test team’s mission.

c. Specifies test team members.


Q-16. Under what circumstance, can you compare transient events that occur during test execution as well as compare data stores after the execution of tests?

a. Test comparator tool.

b. Test execution and logging tool.

c. Test coverage measurement tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-17. How do you simulate the environment in which a test object will run through the provision of mock objects, such as stubs or drivers?

a. Test logging tool.

b. Unit test framework.

c. Test harness.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above

Q-18: What can be used to detect memory leaks, resource leaks, pointer problems and other program vulnerabilities by which an attacker may gain unauthorized access to the system resource?

a. Static analysis tool.

b. Dynamic analysis tool.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. Which of the following is an environmental factor that can damage hardware, which can contribute to software defects? Select all that apply.

a. A hardware interface defect.

b. A strong magnetic field.

c. A portability defect.

d. A radiation burst.

e. Pollution.

A-1: b. A strong magnetic field, d. A radiation burst. and e. Pollution. (FL 1.2.4) (LO 1.1.2) (LO 1 Q-76)


Q-2. Which of the following is a way in which testing supports risk management? Select all that apply.

a. Testing identifies risks that must be mitigated.

b. Testing provides risk management decision-support.

c. Testing supports the risk assessment process.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-2: d. All of the above. (FL 1.2.1) (LO 1.1.3) (FL 1 Q-77)


Q-3. Which of the following is a justification for software testing? Select all that apply.

a. Testing increases the probability that a defect will prevent a software product from functioning as it should.

b. Testing confirms that a software product works as it should.

c. Testing improves an employee’s skills.

d. Testing supports the identification and removal of defects before the phase in which the defects are introduced.

e. Testing is a means to confirm that a software product is defect-free.

A-3: b. Testing confirms that a software product works as it should. and c. Testing improves an employee’s skills. (FL 1.2.1) (LO 1.1.3) (LO 1 Q-78)


Q-4. Which of the following best describes the term “anomaly?” Select all that apply.

a. A condition that deviates from an expected one, which is described in a requirements specification or another test basis.

b. The result of a human mistake that’s committed at some point in the software life cycle.

c. An imperfection in a work product that causes it to fail to meet its requirements.

d. An event in which a system is unsuccessful in performing a required function within a specified limit.

e. An imperfection or deficiency in a work product that causes it to fail to meet its requirements.

A-4: a. A condition that deviates from an expected one, which is described in a requirements specification or another test basis. (FL 1.2.3) (LO 1.1.5) (LO 1 Q-79)


Q-5. Which of the following is a test analysis test activity? Select all that apply.

a. Compare actual progress with planned-for progress.

b. Identify test basis.

c. Evaluate testability of test basis.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-5: c. Evaluate testability of test basis. (FL 1.4.2) (LO 1.4.1) (FL 1 Q-80)


Q-6. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable static analysis test objective?

a. To confirm that a system’s requirements have been met.

b. To confirm a product is free of defects.

c. To confirm a system meets the stated requirements of a target market.

d. All of the above.

e None of the above.

A-6: b. To confirm a product is free of defects. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-76)

Q-7. During component and integration testing, develops may______________________.

a. Analyze software code in terms of its compliance with organizational standards.

b. Analyze software code in terms of its compliance with programming standards.

c. Analyze software code in terms of its compliance with business best practices.

A-7: a Analyze software code in terms of its compliance with organizational standards. and b. Analyze software code in terms of its compliance with programming standards. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.3.3) (LO 3 Q-78)

Q-8. Which of the following group of options are true regarding review processes?

a. The process is led by a trained moderator; The process entails a documented defect-detection process that includes peers and technical experts; A technical lead may review designs and code; The work product’s author leads the process.

b. The process may be quite formal or informal; The process includes metrics gathering; Participants assume well-defined roles; May take the form of pair programming.

c. The process takes place in an open-ended session; Ideally, a technical lead leads the review; The process may take the form of a dry run; The primary purpose is to confirm the software meets user requirements.

d. The process involves documented rules and checklists; The process may take the form of a dry run; The process may involve a scribe; The process must be documented by a scribe.

Q-8: a. The process is led by a trained moderator; The process entails a documented defect-detection process that includes peers and technical experts; A technical lead may review designs and code; The work product’s author leads the process. (FL 3.2.2) (LO 3.2.2) (LO 3 Q-78)


Q-9. What statements are correct regarding a review?

a. A static technique the supports evaluation of a software work product at its completion or other points in SDLC.

b. Verifies document content.

c. Educate review participants.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-9. d. All of the above. (FL 3.2.5) (LO 3.2.3) (LO 3 Q-79)

Q-10. What factors influence the success of a review?

a. Management fosters an environment in which review participants relay information about defects in a constructive way.

b. Appropriate tools are available to support well-defined review activities.

c. Testers gain information needed to conduct testing early in the SDLC.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-10: d. All of the above. (FL 3.2.5) (LO 3.2.3) (LO 3 Q-75)


Q-11. A test procedure__________________. Select all that apply.

a. Is directly referenced in a test execution schedule.

b. Accounts for related factors, including technical and logical dependencies.

c. Is completed during the Test planning phase of the test effort.

A-11: a. Is directly referenced in a test execution schedule. (FL 5.2.4) (LO 5.2.4) (LO 5 Q-76)

Q-12. Product standards, the quality of the test object, and a first-time-right defect fix policy are examples of what? Select all that apply.

a. Factors that influence the test team member selection process.

b. Factors that influence a testing effort.

c. Factors that influence a test schedule.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-12: b. Factors that influence a testing effort. and c. Factors that influence a test schedule. (FL 5.2.5) (LO 5.2.7) (LO 5 Q-77)

Q-13. Which of the following is a step in the test design specification creation process? Select all that apply.

a. Test approach is selected.

b. Risk analysis is performed.

c. Testable items are identified.

d. Test cases are produced.

e. Test procedure documents are produced.

A-13: b. Risk analysis is performed. and c. Testable items are identified. (FL 5.2.1) (LO 5.2.2) (LO 5 Q-78)

Q-14. Which of the following is an activity of the Test Implementation and Execution phase of the test process? Select all that apply.

a. Creation of test cases.

b. Creation of Test procedures.

c. Creation of test design specification.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-14: a. Creation of test cases. and b. Creation of Test procedures. (FL 5.2.1) (LO 5.2.2) (LO 5 Q-79)

Q-15. For what purpose is a test plan specification created? Select all that apply.

a. Specifies tool and software requirements.

b. States the test team’s mission.

c. Specifies test team members.

A-15: a. Specifies tool and software requirements. (FL 5.2.1) (LO 5.2.2) (LO 5 Q-75)


Q-16. Under what circumstance, can you compare transient events that occur during test execution and compare data stores after the execution of tests?

a. Test comparator tool.

b. Test execution and logging tool.

c. Test coverage measurement tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: a. Test Comparator Tool (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-76)

Q-17. How do you simulating the environment in which a test object will run through the provision of mock objects, such as stubs or drivers?

a. Test logging tool.

b. Unit test framework.

c. Test harness.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above

A-17: b. Unit test framework, and c. Test harness, (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-77)

Q-18: What can be used to detect memory leaks, resource leaks, pointer problems and other program vulnerabilities by which an attacker may gain unauthorized access to the system resource?

a. Static analysis tool.

b. Dynamic analysis tool.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

A-18: b. Dynamic Analysis Tool (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-78)

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