ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 15

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 15

QUESTIONS

Q-1. Which of the following concepts is the basis of testing principle number one? Select all that apply.

a. Absence of Errors Fallacy.

b. Defect clustering.

c. Pesticide Paradox.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-2. Which of the following is an example of a memory management defect? Select all that apply.

a. The identical piece of code multiple times in one program.

b. An illegal function call.

c. The navigation within a menu is incorrect.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-3. Which of the following is a valid test design activity? Select all that apply.

a. Create test data to support test conditions and test cases.

b. Prioritize test conditions based on risk assessment.

c. Create test cases.

d. Prioritize test cases.

e. Create test procedures.


Q-4. Which of the following is an example of a root cause of a defect? Select all that apply.

a. Time pressure.

b. Functionality error.

c. The use of incorrect parameter types.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-5. Which of the following is a factor that may contribute to mistakes a developer makes when coding, which can lead to software defects? Select all that apply.

a. Code complexity.

b. User interface.

c. A change in technology.

d. Logic defect.

e. A failure to comply with programming standards.


Q-6. Under what circumstance is a lack of adherence to coding standards evident?

a. Unused or undefined variables.

b. Erroneous logic.

c. Extremely complex coding practices.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-7. Infrequent comments or an insufficient number of comments primarily contributes to___________________.

a. Code maintainability issues.

b. System interface issues.

c. Main memory management issues.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-8. Which of the following is a benefit of a static analysis test strategy?

a. Provide a high degree of confidence that testing has exposed critical defects.

b. Provide project leaders information about the risk that software may contain critical, unexposed defects.

c. Provides information needed to develop a rational risk management approach.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-9. Due to the product risk imposed by faulty documentation, document work products are subject to ____________________.

a. Validation.

b. Verification.

c. Validation and verification.

d. None of the above.


Q-10. In what circumstance is a static quality control technique used?

a. Examine unit tests.

b. Examine product manuals.

c. Examine test automation designs.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-11. An incident might relate to which of the following?

a. Test documentation.

b. Log.

c. Installation guide.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-12. At what point in the software development life cycle is a software configuration item placed under software configuration management control? Select all that apply.

a. Formal closure of the test process.

b. Formal acceptance of the configuration item by stakeholders.

c. Project compliance with formal exit criteria.

d. Any of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-13. Release management and delivery is a primary function of which of the following processes? Select all that apply.

a. Debugging.

b. Configuration management.

c. Test plan.

d. Test process.

e. SDLC.

Q-14. What is a product risk for a point-of-sales system for retail stores? Select all that apply.

a. The introduction of additional competing products.

b. The test environment is not available.

c. Defect fixes fail.

d. The software product fails to accept debit cards.

Q-15. Which of the following is a characteristic of a test schedule? Select all that apply.

a. High-risk functionality is tested early in the schedule.

b. Time is set aside to test mission-critical functionality.

c. Regression testing is performed late in the schedule.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-16. Under what circumstance is an incident management tool used?

a. Manages the life cycle of incidents.

b. Offers a means to trace a requirement to the related test.

c. Defines tasks, categorizes them into types, assign tasks to team members and tracks the progress until completion.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-17. What is used to store and provide version management of testware and related software, such as operating systems, compilers and browsers?

a. Configuration management tool.

b. Incident management tool.

c. Test management tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-18. What must be available to manage tests of testware?

a. Application life cycle management tool.

b. Test management tool.

c. Configuration management tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. Which of the following concepts is the basis of testing principle number one? Select all that apply.

a. Absence of Errors Fallacy.

b. Defect clustering.

c. Pesticide Paradox.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-1: e. None of the above. (FL 1.3.1) (LO 1.3.1) (LO 1 Q-71)


Q-2. Which of the following is an example of a memory management defect? Select all that apply.

a. The identical piece of code multiple times in one program.

b. An illegal function call.

c. The navigation within a menu is incorrect.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-2: b. An illegal function call. (FL 1.2.3) (LO 1.1.5) (LO 1 Q-72)


Q-3. Which of the following is a valid test design activity? Select all that apply.

a. Create test data to support test conditions and test cases.

b. Prioritize test conditions based on risk assessment.

c. Create test cases.

d. Prioritize test cases.

e. Create test procedures.

A-3: b. Prioritize test conditions based on risk assessment. (FL 1.4.2) (LO 1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-73)


Q-4. Which of the following is an example of a root cause of a defect? Select all that apply.

a. Time pressure.

b. Functionality error.

c. The use of incorrect parameter types.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-4: a. Time pressure. (FL 1.2.4) (LO 1.1.2) (LO 1 Q-74)


Q-5. Which of the following is a factor that may contribute to mistakes a developer makes when coding, which can lead to software defects? Select all that apply.

a. Code complexity.

b. User interface.

c. A change in technology.

d. Logic defect.

e. A failure to comply with programming standards.

A-5: a. Code complexity. and c. A change in technology. (FL 1.2.4) (LO 1.1.2) (LO 1 Q-75)


Q-6. Under what circumstance is a lack of adherence to coding standards evident?

a. Unused or undefined variables.

b. Erroneous logic.

c. Extremely complex coding practices.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-6: c. Extremely complex coding practices. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.3.3) (LO 3 Q-71)


Q-7. Infrequent comments or an insufficient number of comments primarily contributes to___________________.

a. Code maintainability issues.

b. System interface issues.

c. Main memory management issues.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-7: a. Code maintainability issues. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.3.3) (LO 3 Q-72)

Q-8. Which of the following is a benefit of a static analysis test strategy?

a. Provide a high degree of confidence that testing has exposed critical defects.

b. Provide project leaders information about the risk that software may contain critical, unexposed defects.

c. Provides information needed to develop a rational risk management approach.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-8: d. All of the above. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.3.2) (LO 3 Q-73)

Q-9. Due to the product risk imposed by faulty documentation, document work products are subject to ____________________.

a. Validation.

b. Verification.

c. Validation and verification.

d. None of the above.

A-9: c. Validation and verification. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.2.3) (LO 3 Q-74)


Q-10. In what circumstance is a static quality control technique used?

a. Examine unit tests.

b. Examine product manuals.

c. Examine test automation designs.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-10: d. All of the above. (FL 3.1.1) (LO 3.1.1) (LO 3 Q-75)


Q-11. An incident might relate to which of the following?

a. Test documentation.

b. Log.

c. Installation guide.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-11: a. Test documentation. and c. Installation guide. (FL 5.6.1) (LO 5.6.1) (LO 5 Q-71)

Q-12. At what point in the software development life cycle is a software configuration item placed under software configuration management control? Select all that apply.

a. Formal closure of the test process.

b. Formal acceptance of the configuration item by stakeholders.

c. Project compliance with formal exit criteria.

d. Any of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-12: b. Formal acceptance of the configuration item by stakeholders. (FL 5.4.1) (LO 5.4.1) (LO 5 Q-72)

Q-13. Release management and delivery is a primary function of which of the following processes? Select all that apply.

a. Debugging.

b. Configuration management.

c. Test plan.

d. Test process.

e. SDLC.

A-13: b. Configuration management. (FL 5.4.1) (LO 5.4.1) (LO 5 Q-73)

Q-14. What is a product risk for a point-of-sales system for retail stores? Select all that apply.

a. The introduction of additional competing products.

b. The test environment is not available.

c. Defect fixes fail.

d. The software product fails to accept debit cards.

A-14: d. The software product fails to accept debit cards. (FL 5.5.2) (LO 5.5.4) (LO 5 Q-74)

Q-15. Which of the following is a characteristic of a test schedule? Select all that apply.

a. High-risk functionality is tested early in the schedule.

b. Time is set aside to test mission-critical functionality.

c. Regression testing is performed late in the schedule.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-15: a. High-risk functionality is tested early in the schedule. (T) and b. Time is set aside to test mission-critical functionality. (FL 5.2.4) (LO 5.2.5) (LO 5 Q-70)


Q-16. Under what circumstance is an incident management tool used?

a. Manages the life cycle of incidents.

b. Offers a means to trace a requirement to the related test.

c. Defines tasks, categorizes them into types, assign tasks to team members and tracks the progress until completion.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: a. Manages the life cycle of incidents. and c. Defines tasks, categorizes them into types, assign tasks to team members and tracks the progress until completion. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.3) (LO 6 Q-71)

Q-17. What is used to store and provide version management of testware and related software, such as operating systems, compilers and browsers?

a. Configuration management tool.

b. Incident management tool.

c. Test management tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: FL 6.1.1 a Configuration management tool. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-72)

Q-18. What must be available to manage tests of testware?

A. Application life cycle management tool.

B. Test management tool.

C. Configuration management tool.

D. All of the above.

E. None of the above.

A-18: B. Test management tool. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-73)

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