ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 14

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 14

QUESTIONS

Q-1. In what case should a developer consider the possibility that a communication error exists? Select all that apply.

a. A user has no means to initiate a required function.

b. The error messages that a system displays in response to an error are not meaningful to the user.

c. Information the user requires to interact with a program is not made available by the program.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-2. What statement is correct regarding the mindset of a tester? Select all that apply.

a. A tester has a vested interest in attaining a “Fail” test outcome.

b. A tester can execute tests at any test level, which contributes to the success of the test effort.

c. A tester assumes the responsibility identify and fix defects in the work product under test.

d. A tester should assume the work product under test is not defective, which contributes to a positive relationship with the developer.

e. A tester’s code of ethics contributes to the likelihood the test effort will be successful.


Q-3. Provide insight to the software development process is an example of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Testing objective by test target.

b. Testing objective by purpose.

c. General testing objective.


Q-4. Which of the following is a test design activity? Select all that apply.

a. Establish traceability between test basis and test cases.

b. Prioritize test conditions.

c. Review test basis to identify test conditions.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-5. Which of the following is one way to classify integration testing? Select all that apply.

a. Testing objectives by test target.

b. General testing objectives.

c. Testing objectives by purpose.


Q-6. Which of the following is a defect that is identified by evaluating a component’s compliance with coding standards?

a. A failure to release main memory dynamically reserved.

b. A failure to use a standard software library.

c. The use of unconstrained data entries.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-7. What options are available when using static analysis techniques?

a. Calling structure analysis.

b. Structure flow analysis.

c. Website analysis.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-8. Which option can be used to determine if a programmer’s code includes a sufficient number of comments.?

a. Data flow analysis.

b. Generatation of code metrics.

c. Control flow analysis.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-9. Identify participants in a formal review.

Manager

Moderator

Scribe

Work Product Author

a. True, True, True, True

b. True, True, True, False

c. False, True, True, True

d. True, False, False, True


Q-10. Which of the following static techniques is most likely to identify practices that contribute to security vulnerabilities?

a. Data flow analysis.

b. Coding Standards-Based Analysis.

c. Code metrics.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-11. The customer wants to make risk management decisions. What is required to enable them to do so? Select all that apply.

a. Test monitoring metrics.

b. Test controlling metrics.

c. Test reporting metrics.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-12. What metrics support decision making processes? Select all that apply.

a. Test monitoring.

b. Test control.

c. Test reporting.

Q-13. What metrics are used to evaluate the characteristics of test project deliverables? Select all that apply.

a. Test monitoring.

b. Test control.

c. Test reporting.

d. None of the above.

Q-14. What information is recorded in a test summary report? Select all that apply.

a. Test plan summary.

b. Test results for a certain test level.

c. Exit criteria achieved.

d. Test item evaluations.

e. Test procedures completed.

Q-15. The evaluation of entry and exit criteria, transforming work activities and the creation of required inputs are elements of what? Select all that apply.

a. Test process.

b. Software development process.

c. Review.


Q-16. In what ways does one test tool differ from another?

a. The achievement of efficiency due to the automation of repetitive tasks.

b. The performance of tasks that can’t be performed using a manual process.

c. The improvement of a task’s reliability.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-17. What functions are performed by a test management tool?

a. Manages testware.

b. Schedules tests to be executed using a manual or automated process.

c. Tracks the code changes that are associated with requirements (stories) that have been implemented, tasks that have been completed or incidents (defects) that have been fixed.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-18. Which option can be performed by an application life cycle management tool?

a. Manages project requirements and test cases in documents and spreadsheets.

b. Identifies inconsistencies in requirements and missing requirements.

c. Stores and provides version management of testware and related software, such as operating systems, compilers and browsers.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. In what case should a developer consider the possibility that a communication error exists? Select all that apply.

a. A user has no means to initiate a required function.

b. The error messages that a system displays in response to an error are not meaningful to the user.

c. Information the user requires to interact with a program is not made available by the program.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-1 c. Information the user requires to interact with a program is not made available by the program. (FL 1.2.3) (LO 1.1.5) (LO 1 Q-66)


Q-2. What statement is correct regarding the mindset of a tester? Select all that apply.

a. A tester has a vested interest in attaining a “Fail” test outcome.

b. A tester can execute tests at any test level, which contributes to the success of the test effort.

c. A tester assumes the responsibility identify and fix defects in the work product under test.

d. A tester should assume the work product under test is not defective, which contributes to a positive relationship with the developer.

e. A tester’s code of ethics contributes to the likelihood the test effort will be successful.

A-2: b. A tester can execute tests at any test level, which contributes to the success of the test effort. and e. A tester’s code of ethics contributes to the likelihood the test effort will be successful. (FL 1.5.2) (LO 1.5.2) (LO 1 Q-67)


Q-3. Provide insight to the software development process is an example of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Testing objective by test target.

b. Testing objective by purpose.

c. General testing objective.

A-3: c. General testing objective. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.1) (LO 1 Q-68)


Q-4. Which of the following is a test design activity? Select all that apply.

a. Establish traceability between test basis and test cases.

b. Prioritize test conditions.

c. Review test basis to identify test conditions.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-4: a. Establish traceability between test basis and test cases. and b. Prioritize test conditions. (FL 1.4.2) (LO 1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-69)


Q-5. Which of the following is one way to classify integration testing? Select all that apply.

a. Testing objectives by test target.

b. General testing objectives.

c. Testing objectives by purpose.

A-5: a. Testing objectives by test target. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.1) (LO 1 Q-65)


Q-6. Which of the following is a defect that is identified by evaluating a component’s compliance with coding standards?

a. A failure to release main memory dynamically reserved.

b. A failure to use a standard software library.

c. The use of unconstrained data entries.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-6: a. A failure to release main memory dynamically reserved. and c. The use of unconstrained data entries. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.3.3) (LO 3 Q-66)

Q-7. What options are available when using static analysis techniques?

a. Calling structure analysis.

b. Structure flow analysis.

c. Website analysis.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-7: a. Calling structure analysis. and c. Website analysis. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.3.3) (LO 3 Q-67)

Q-8. Which option can be used to determine if a programmer’s code includes a sufficient number of comments?

a. Data flow analysis.

b. Generate code metrics.

c. Control flow analysis.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-8: b. Generate code metrics. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.3.3) (LO 3 Q-68)


Q-9. Identify participants in a formal review.

Manager

Moderator

Scribe

Work Product Author

a. True, True, True, True

b. True, True, True, False

c. False, True, True, True

d. True, False, False, True

A-9: b. True, True, True, False. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (LO 3 Q-69)

Q-10. Which of the following static techniques is most likely to identify practices that contribute to security vulnerabilities?

a. Data flow analysis.

b. Coding Standards-Based Analysis.

c. Code metrics.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-10: B. Coding Standards-Based Analysis. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.3.3) (LO 3 Q-65)


Q-11. The customer wants to make risk management decisions. What is required to enable them to do so? Select all that apply.

a. Test monitoring metrics.

b. Test controlling metrics.

c. Test reporting metrics.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-11: c. Test reporting metrics. (FL 5.3.2) (LO 5.3.2) (LO 5 Q-66)

Q-12. What metrics support decision making processes? Select all that apply.

a. Test monitoring.

b. Test control.

c. Test reporting.

A-12: b. Test control. (FL 5.3.2) LO 5.3.2) (LO 5 Q-67)

Q-13. What metrics are used to evaluate the characteristics of test project deliverables? Select all that apply.

a. Test monitoring.

b. Test control.

c. Test reporting.

d. None of the above.

A-13: a. Test monitoring. (FL 5.3.1) (LO 5.3.2) (LO 5 Q-68)

Q-14. What information is recorded in a test summary report? Select all that apply.

a. Test plan summary.

b. Test results for a certain test level.

c. Exit criteria achieved.

d. Test item evaluations.

e. Test procedures completed.

A-14: b. Test results for a certain test level. and d. Test item evaluations. (FL 5.3.2) (LO 5.3.3) (LO 5 Q-69

Q-15. The evaluation of entry and exit criteria, transforming work activities and the creation of required inputs are elements of what? Select all that apply.

a. Test process.

b. Software development process.

c. Review.

A-15: a. Test process. (FL 5.2.3) (LO 5.2.9) (LO 5 Q-65)


Q-16. In what ways does one test tool differ from another?

a. The achievement of efficiency due to the automation of repetitive tasks.

b. The performance of tasks that can’t be performed using a manual process.

c. The improvement of a task’s reliability.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: d. All of the above. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-66)

Q-17. What functions are performed by a test management tool?

a. Manages testware.

b. Schedules tests to be executed using a manual or automated process.

c. Tracks the code changes that are associated with requirements (stories) that have been implemented, tasks that have been completed or incidents (defects) that have been fixed.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: a. Manages testware. and b. Schedules tests to be executed using a manual or automated process. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-67)

Q-18. Which option can be performed by an application life cycle management tool?

a. Manages project requirements and test cases in documents and spreadsheets.

b. Identifies inconsistencies in requirements and missing requirements.

c. Stores and provides version management of testware and related software, such as operating systems, compilers and browsers.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-18: a. Manages project requirements and test cases in documents and spreadsheets. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 6.1.1) (LO 6 Q-68)

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