ASTQB Foundation Level Certified Tester: Quizzes

Quiz No. 13

Syllabus 2018s

ASTQB Foundation Level Certified Tester: Quiz No. 13

QUESTIONS

Q-1. Which of the following is a way that testing contributes to a software product’s quality? Select all that apply.

a. Testing ensures that the software under test adheres to its documented requirements.

b. Testing ensures that the software under test as stated in its requirements is suited to its intended purpose.

c. Testing ensures that the software under test meets user needs.

d. Testing ensures that the software under test confirms requirements are correct, complete and testable.


Q-2. Which of the following describes an effect of the failure of a mission-critical system? Select all that apply.

a. A catastrophic impact on the environment.

b. The inability to accomplish organizational goals.

c. A loss of sensitive data.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-3. Which of the following does a test manager use to specify the resources needed to accomplish a test project’s objectives? Select all that apply.

a. Test strategy.

b. Test plan.

c. Test procedure.


Q-4. Which of the following describes the effect of the failure of a system that processes employee productivity information? Select all that apply.

a. The inability to achieve strategic objectives.

b. A loss of sensitive data.

c. A catastrophic impact of people.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-5. Which of the following is the primary focus of software quality control? Select all that apply.

a. The software development life cycle.

b. The software quality measurements.

c. The software product.

d. The software-related services.

e. The software quality processes.


Q-6. At what test level is dynamic analysis typically performed?

a. Unit testing.

b. Integration testing.

c. System testing.

d. Acceptance testing.


Q-7. Which of the following is a work product that can be examined by a technical review?

a. Source code.

b. Software design.

c. Requirements specification.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-8. What step in the software development life cycle directly involves a work product’s author?

a. Walkthrough.

b. Technical review.

c. Informal review.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-9. What team member documents issues and defects identified during a formal review?

a. Author.

b. Scribe.

c. Moderator.

d. Any of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-10. What team member documents issues and defects identified during a formal review?

a. Author.

b. Scribe.

c. Moderator.

d. Any of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-11. What is one purpose of a weekly report that determines the percentage of identified defects that relate to each product risk? Select all that apply.

a. To confirm all major risks have been identified.

b. To evaluate risk coverage by tests.

c. To identify defect clusters.

Q-12. Which test estimation approach can be performed using historical size and effort data? Select all that apply.

a. Metrics-based approach.

b. Expert-judgment approach.

c. Neither a. nor b.

d. Both a. and b.

Q-13. You are responsible for creating a test estimate. What factors will affect the process? Select all that apply.

a. Test basis quality.

b. Complexity of problem domain.

c. The organization’s stability.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-14. Which entry criteria may relate to an acceptance plan? Select all that apply.

Conclusion of system testing

Test environment support personnel are available.

Critical bugs identified during integration testing are fixed.

Testing confirms software meets business requirements.

Bug-tracking system in place.

a. T, F, T, F, T

b. F, F, F, T, T

c. T, T, F, T, F

Q-15. A test leader’s test summary report states “The receivables processing system does not issue statements, a critical feature of the system.” In what element of the test summary report will this statement be found? Select all that apply.

a. Activities Summary.

b. Variances.

c. Evaluation of test item.

d. Comprehensive assessment.


Q-16. What principles should govern test tool selection?

a. Implement a pilot project to evaluate the tool’s infrastructure.

b. Identify team members with the required training and coaching.

c. Establish the benefits and disadvantages of a test tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-17. Which of the following is a consideration for a test execution tool?

a. The knowledge that a tester must possess to use the tool to create test scripts.

b. Skills of the test team members.

c. The effect of the manner in which test scripts are created on the probable success of the tool’s adoption.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-18. What step in a pilot project reveals a test tool’s probably benefit?

a. Working with a tool’s reporting capabilities.

b. Experimentation with the tool’s configuration options.

c. Evaluate the probable use of the tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. Which of the following is a way that testing contributes to a software product’s quality? Select all that apply.

a. Testing ensures that the software under test adheres to its documented requirements.

b. Testing ensures that the software under test as stated in its requirements is suited to its intended purpose.

c. Testing ensures that the software under test meets user needs.

d. Testing ensures that the software under test confirms requirements are correct, complete and testable.

A-1: a. Testing ensures that the software under test adheres to its documented requirements. c. Testing ensures that the software under test meets user needs. and d. Testing ensures that the software under test confirms requirements are correct, complete and testable. (FL 1.2.2) (LO 1.1.4) (LO 1 Q-61)


Q-2. Which of the following describes an effect of the failure of a mission-critical system? Select all that apply.

a. A catastrophic impact on the environment.

b. The inability to accomplish organizational goals.

c. A loss of sensitive data.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-2: b. The inability to accomplish organizational goals. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.1.1) (LO 1 Q-62)


Q-3. Which of the following does a test manager use to specify the resources needed to accomplish a test project’s objectives? Select all that apply.

a. Test strategy.

b. Test plan.

c. Test procedure.

A-3: b. Test plan. (FL 1.4.2) (LO. 1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-63)

Q-4. Which of the following describes the effect of the failure of a system that processes employee productivity information? Select all that apply.

a. The inability to achieve strategic objectives.

b. A loss of sensitive data.

c. A catastrophic impact of people.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-4: a. The inability to achieve strategic objectives. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1 Q-64)


Q-5. Which of the following is the primary focus of software quality control? Select all that apply.

a. The software development life cycle.

b. The software quality measurements.

c. The software product.

d. The software-related services.

e. The software quality processes.

A-5: a. The software development life cycle. c. The software product. and d. The software-related services. (FL 1.2.2) (LO 1.1.4) (LO 1 Q-53)


Q-6. At what test level is dynamic analysis typically performed?

a. Unit testing.

b. Integration testing.

c. System testing.

d. Acceptance testing.

A-6: a. Unit testing. and b. Integration testing. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-61)


Q-7. Which of the following is a work product that can be examined by a technical review?

a. Source code.

b. Software design.

c. Requirements specification.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-7: d. All of the above. (FL 3.1.1) (LO 3.1.1) (LO 3 Q-62)


Q-8. What step in the software development life cycle directly involves a work product’s author?

a. Walkthrough.

b. Technical review.

c. Informal review.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-8: c. Information review. (FL 3.1.1) (LO 3.1.1) (LO 3 Q-63)

Q-9. What team member documents issues and defects identified during a formal review?

a. Author.

b. Scribe.

c. Moderator.

d. Any of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-9: b. Scribe. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (LO 3 Q-64)


Q-10. What team member documents issues and defects identified during a formal review?

a. Author.

b. Scribe.

c. Moderator.

d. Any of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-10: b. Scribe. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (LO 3 Q-64)


Q-11. What is one purpose of a weekly report that determines the percentage of identified defects that relate to each product risk? Select all that apply.

a. To confirm all major risks have been identified.

b. To evaluate risk coverage by tests.

c. To identify defect clusters.

A-11: b. To evaluate risk coverage by tests. (FL 5 5.3) (LO 5.5.5) (LO 5 Q-61)

Q-12. Which test estimation approach can be performed using historical size and effort data? Select all that apply.

a. Metrics-based approach.

b. Expert-judgment approach.

c. Neither a. nor b.

d. Both a. and b.

A-12: a. Metrics-based approach. (FL 5.3.1) (LO 5.3.1) (LO 5 Q-62)

Q-13. You are responsible for creating a test estimate. What factors will affect the process? Select all that apply.

a. Test basis quality.

b. Complexity of problem domain.

c. The organization’s stability.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-13: d. All of the above. (FL 5.2.5) (LO 5.2.8) (LO 5 Q-63)

Q-14. Which entry criteria may relate to an acceptance plan? Select all that apply.

Conclusion of system testing

Test environment support personnel are available.

Critical bugs identified during integration testing are fixed.

Testing confirms software meets business requirements.

Bug-tracking system in place.

a. T, F, T, F, T

b. F, F, F, T, T

c. T, T, F, T, F

A-14: c. True, true, false, true, false. (FL 5.2.3) (LO 5.2.9) (LO 5 Q-64)

Q-15. A test leader’s test summary report states “The receivables processing system does not issue statements, a critical feature of the system.” In what element of the test summary report will this statement be found? Select all that apply.

a. Activities Summary.

b. Variances.

c. Evaluation of test item.

d. Comprehensive assessment.

A-15: c. Evaluation of test item. (FL 5.3.2) (LO 5.3.3) (LO 5 Q-60)


Q-16. What principles should govern test tool selection?

a. Implement a pilot project to evaluate the tool’s infrastructure.

b. Identify team members with the required training and coaching.

c. Establish the benefits and disadvantages of a test tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: c. Establish the benefits and disadvantages of a test tool. (FL 6.2.1) (LO 6.3.1) (LO 6 Q-61)

Q-17. Which of the following is a consideration for a test execution tool?

a. The knowledge that a tester must possess to use the tool to create test scripts.

b. Skills of the test team members.

c. The effect of the manner in which test scripts are created on the probable success of the tool’s adoption.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: a. The knowledge that a tester must possess to use the tool to create test scripts. and b. Skills of the test team members. (FL 6.1.3) (LO 6.2.2) (LO 6 Q-62)

Q-18. What step in a pilot project reveals a test tool’s probably benefit?

a. Working with a tool’s reporting capabilities.

b. Experimentation with the tool’s configuration options.

c. Evaluate the probable use of the tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-18: d. All of the above. (FL 6.2.2) (LO 6.3.2) (LO 6 Q-63)

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