ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 12

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 12

QUESTIONS

Q-1. Which of the following are characteristics of the medium-high level of tester independence? Select all that apply.

Groupthink

Author Bias

High level Defect Detection

Reports to Development Manager

Member of Test Team

a. No, No, No, No, No

b. Yes, Yes, No, Yes, Yes

c. No, No, Yes, No, No

d. Yes, No, No, No, Yes


Q-2. Which of the following is an element of the Tester Code of Ethics? Select all that apply.

Public

Integrity

Client and Employer

Process

a. Yes, Yes, Yes, Yes

b. Yes, No, Yes, Yes

c. Yes, No, Yes, No

d. No, Yes, Yes, Yes


Q-3. Which of the following is a major category of system for which software defects can have a significant effect on stakeholders? Select all that apply.

Security-critical system

Finance-critical system

Mission-critical system

Safety-critical system

a. Yes, Yes, No, Yes

b. No, Yes, Yes, No

c. Yes, No, Yes, Yes

d. Yes, No, No, Yes


Q-4. Which of the following is a valid definition of correctness testing? Select all that apply.

a. To confirm a software product correctly implements its functional specifications.

b. To confirm a software product’s current state equals its required state.

c. To confirm a software product’s nonfunctional properties.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-5. Which of the following is an example of a mission-critical system? Select all that apply.

a. Process financial transactions is an example of a mission-critical system.

b. A banking system is a mission-critical system.

c. A supply chain management system is a mission-critical system.


Q-6. When evaluating a program’s compliance to coding standards, what issues may be identified?

a. The absence of comments before decision points.

b. Unused variables.

c. Dead code.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-7. Static analysis tools produce metrics that support what?

a. Risk-mitigation efforts.

b. Cost control efforts.

c. Quality control efforts.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-8. What are the success factors of a review?

Predefined Objective

Defects expressed in objective manner.

Management support

Emphasis on Learning

a. False, True, True, True

b. True, False, True, True

c. True, True, True, True

d. False, True, False, False

Q-9. What statement regarding static analysis tools is correct?

a. Static analysis tools identify defects rather than failures.

b. Static analysis tools are used only by developers.

c. Static analysis tools require execution of the code to analyze the coverage.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-10. What defect is typically identified by dynamic testing?

a. Missing requirements.

b. Design defects.

c. Pointer issues.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-11. Which of the following is a requirement to maintain a tester’s independence? Select all that apply.

a. The tester has no direct or indirect interest in providing a positive or negative assessment of a work product’s quality.

b. The person to whom the tester reports his findings cannot influence the tester’s independence by making decisions regarding the tester’s compensation.

c. The person to whom the tester reports his findings can influence the tester’s independence by proving input to his professional evaluation.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-12. Test control metrics support which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. The creation of a new test schedule based on the lack of availability of a test environment.

b. A re-prioritization of test cases.

c. The definition of confirmation testing as an entry criterion.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-13. A low level of tester independence is defined for which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. The tester and the developer of the software are employed by the same organization.

b. The person who designs tests is not a member of the development team responsible for developing the software.

c. The author bias phenomenon is somewhat diminished by the development of tests by someone other than the author of the work product.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-14. In what element of an incident report is the statement, “I expect the system to display an error message indicating invalid input is rejected and requesting valid input.” recorded? Select all that apply.

a. Summary.

b. Item fail criteria.

c. Incident description.

Q-15. A report that documents an event, which occurs during the test effort, is termed a/an__________. Select all that apply.

a. Defect report.

b. Test summary report.

c. Incident report.


Q-16. What sequence of activities is required for a tool to execute tests?

a. Create test scripts.

b. Testers must enter key strokes to create a test script.

c. A test script stores test inputs in a spreadsheet.

e. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-17. What is needed to benefit from test management tools?

a. Interface requirements management tools with configuration management tools to link information.

b. Interface test management tools with other tools to generate data in the required format.

c. Interface test management tools with other tools to enable traceability of data between two or more systems.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-18. What does pilot project mean?

a. Proof of concept.

b. Tool introduction.

c. Tool configuration.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. Which of the following are characteristics of the medium-high level of tester independence? Select all that apply.

Groupthink

Author Bias

High level Defect Detection

Reports to Development Manager

Member of Test Team

a. No, No, No, No, No

b. Yes, Yes, No, Yes, Yes

c. No, No, Yes, No, No

d. Yes, No, No, No, Yes

A-1: c. High level of defect detection. (FL 1.5.2) (LO 1.5.2) (FL 1 Q-56)


Q-2. Which of the following is an element of the Tester Code of Ethics? Select all that apply.

Public

Integrity

Client and Employer

Process

a. Yes, Yes, Yes, Yes

b. Yes, No, Yes, Yes

c. Yes, No, Yes, No

d. No, Yes, Yes, Yes

A-2: c. Public, client and employer . (LO 1.6) (L) 1 Q-57)


Q-3. Which of the following is a major category of systems for which software defects can have a significant effect on stakeholders? Select all that apply.

Security-critical system

Finance-critical system

Mission-critical system

Safety-critical system

a. Yes, Yes, No, Yes

b. No, Yes, Yes, No

c. Yes, No, Yes, Yes

d. Yes, No, No, Yes

A-3: c. Security-critical system, Mission-critical system and Safety-critical system. (FL 1. 1.1) (LO 1.1.1) (LO 1 Q-58)


Q-4. Which of the following is a valid definition of correctness testing? Select all that apply.

a. To confirm a software product correctly implements its functional specifications.

b. To confirm a software product’s current state equals its required state.

c. To confirm a software product’s nonfunctional properties.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-4 a. To confirm a software product correctly implements its functional specifications. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.1) (LO 1 Q-59)


Q-5. Which of the following is an example of a mission-critical system? Select all that apply.

a. Process financial transactions is an example of a mission-critical system.

b. A banking system is a mission-critical system.

c. A supply chain management system is a mission-critical system.

A-5: c. A supply chain management system is a mission-critical system. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1 Q-60)


Q-6. When evaluating a program’s compliance to coding standards, what issues may be identified?

a. The absence of comments before decision points.

b. Unused variables.

c. Dead code.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-6: a. The absence of comments before decision points. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.3.3) (LO 3 Q=56)


Q-7. Static analysis tools produce metrics that support what?

a. Risk-mitigation efforts.

b. Cost control efforts.

c. Quality control efforts.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-7: a. Risk-mitigation efforts. and c. Quality control efforts. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.3.2) (LO 3 Q-57)


Q-8. What are the success factors of a review?

Predefined Objective

Defects expressed in objective manner.

Management support

Emphasis on Learning

a. False, True, True, True

b. True, False, True, True

c. True, True, True, True

d. False, True, False, False

A-8: b. Predefined objective, management support and emphasis on learning. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (LO 3 Q-58)

Q-9. What statement regarding static analysis tools is correct?

a. Static analysis tools identify defects rather than failures.

b. Static analysis tools are used only by developers.

c. Static analysis tools require execution of the code to analyze the coverage.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-9: a. Static analysis tools help find defects rather than failure. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.1.2) (LO 3 Q-59)


Q-10. What defect is typically identified by dynamic testing?

a. Missing requirements.

b. Design defects.

c. Pointer issues.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-10: c. Pointer issues. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-60)


Q-11. Which of the following is a requirement to maintain a tester’s independence? Select all that apply.

a. The tester has no direct or indirect interest in providing a positive or negative assessment of a work product’s quality.

b. The person to whom the tester reports his findings cannot influence the tester’s independence by making decisions regarding the tester’s compensation.

c. The person to whom the tester reports his findings can influence the tester’s independence by proving input to his professional evaluation.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-11: a. The tester has no direct or indirect interest in providing a positive or negative assessment of a work product’s quality. and b. The person to whom the tester reports his findings cannot influence the tester’s independence by making decisions regarding the tester’s compensation. (FL 5.5.1) (LO 5.1.1) (LO 5 Q-56)


Q-12. Test control metrics support which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. The creation of a new test schedule based on the lack of availability of a test environment.

b. A re-prioritization of test cases.

c. The definition of confirmation testing as an entry criterion.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-12: b. A re-prioritization of test cases. and c. The definition of confirmation testing as an entry criterion. (FL 5.3.2) (LO 5.3.2) (LO 5 Q-57)

Q-13. A low level of tester independence is defined for which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. The tester and the developer of the software are employed by the same organization.

b. The person who designs tests is not a member of the development team responsible for developing the software.

c. The author bias phenomenon is somewhat diminished by the development of tests by someone other than the author of the work product.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-13: a. The tester and the developer of the software are employed by the same organization. and c. The author bias phenomenon is somewhat diminished by the development of tests by someone other than the author of the work product. (FL 5.1.1) (LO 5. 1.1) (LO 5 Q-58)

Q-14. In what element of an incident report is the statement, “I expect the system to display an error message indicating invalid input is rejected and requesting valid input.” recorded? Select all that apply.

a. Summary.

b. Item fail criteria.

c. Incident description.

A-14: c. Incident description. (FL 5.6.1) (LO 5.6.1) (LO 5 Q-59)

Q-15. A report that documents an event, which occurs during the test effort, is termed a/an__________. Select all that apply.

a. Defect report.

b. Test summary report.

c. Incident report.

A-15: c. Incident report. (FL 5.6.1) (LO 5.6.2) (LO 5 Q-55)


Q-16. What sequence of activities is required for a tool to execute tests?

a. Create test scripts.

b. Testers must enter key strokes to create a test script.

c. A test script stores test inputs in a spreadsheet.

e. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: a. Create test scripts. (FL 6.1.3) (LO 6.2.2) (LO 6 Q- 56)

Q-17. What is needed to benefit from test management tools?

a. Interface requirements management tools with configuration management tools to link information.

b. Interface test management tools with other tools to generate data in the required format.

c. Interface test management tools with other tools to enable traceability of data between two or more systems.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: b. Interface test management tools with other tools to generate data in the required format. and c. Interface test management tools with other tools to enable traceability of data between two or more systems. (FL 6.1.3 ) (LO 6.2.2) (LO 6 Q-57)


Q-18. What does pilot project mean?

a. Proof of concept.

b. Tool introduction.

c. Tool configuration.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-18: A. Proof of concept. (FL 6.2.2 ) (LO 6.3.2) (LO 6 Q-58)

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