ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 10

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 10

QUESTIONS

Q-1. A user has no means to initiate a required function. This is an example of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. An initialization defect.

b. A logic defect.

c. A functionality error.

d. An interface defect.

e. A missing command error.


Q-2. Which of the following is a test reporting task? Select all that apply.

a. Create a Test Summary Report.

b. Track defects.

c. Analyze defects.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-3. You want to identify the primary elements that influence a software product’s risk level. What should be considered? Select all that apply.

a. The rate of defect discovery.

b. The size of the software product in terms of single lines of code.

c. The number of known defects.

d. The expertise of test team members in terms of specification-based and structural testing.

e. The percentage of tests failed.


Q-4. Report anomalies as incidents is a task of what test activity? Select all that apply.

a. Test planning.

b. Test control.

c. Test analysis.

d. Test design.

e. Test implementation.

f. Test execution.


Q-5. Correcting code is a step of which of the following processes? Select all that apply.

a. Testing.

b. Debugging.

c. Both testing and debugging.

Q-6. The tasks of a test leader do not include which of the following?

a. Planning and coordinating a test strategy.

b. Planning the implementation of the test environment.

c. Writing a test summary report.

d. Reviewing the test plan.

Q-7. Which of the following is not included in the cost of a review?

a. Process improvement.

b. Metrics analysis.

c. Tool support.

d. Rework.

Q-8. Which of the following are defects identified by control flow analysis?

a. Code that can’t be executed due to incorrect logic.

b. Extremely complex coding structures.

c. Variables that are redefined before the system uses their original values.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-9. ________________identifies memory leaks and unassigned pointers.

a. Dynamic analysis.

B. Static analysis tool.

c. Static analysis.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-10. Which of the following is a true statement about automated static analysis?

a. The technique identifies defects, but not failures.

b. The technique is only used by developers.

c. The technique requires the compilation of code.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-11. Risk relates to which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Work breakdown structure.

b. Technology maturity.

c. Performance against plan.

d. The integrated master schedule.

e. Design maturity.

Q-12. Identify a key element of risk management. Select all that apply.

a. Risk transfer.

b. Risk mitigation.

c. Risk resumption.

d. Risk avoidance.

e. Risk deference.

Q-13. Which of the following is a factor that should influence a risk management approach? Select all that apply.

a. The project’s software development life cycle model.

b. Statutory requirements.

c. Organizational policies.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-14. Which of the following is a project risk? Select all that apply.

a. The delivery of failure-prone software.

b. Ill-defined requirements specifications.

c. Delay in data conversion.

d. The failure of a software product to adhere to non-functional requirements.

e. Poorly designed program code.

Q-15. What is a project risk? Select all that apply.

a. The potential failure of a system.

b. The inability to develop a product on-time.

c. Intra-organizational conflict due to conflicting product requirements.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-16. Name a special consideration for a test execution tool?

a. To create test scripts the test tool must capture data or a tester’s key strokes.

b. Testers who operate a test tool must possess special skills needed to create test scripts to execute test objects.

c. For some test approaches, inputs for each test must be created and stored.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-17. Name a special consideration for a static analysis tool?

a. Warning messages can preclude the translation of code to an executable program.

b. To counter warning messages the tool generates, coding standards are enforced.

c. Coding standards are enforced by the test tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-18. The main principles for introducing a tool into an organization are what?

a. Evaluate the feasibility of acquiring a tool based on existing technology.

b. Evaluate the test team’s training and coaching.

c. Evaluate a vendor’s ability to provide training and tool support.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. A user has no means to initiate a required function. This is an example of which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. An initialization defect.

b. A logic defect.

c. A functionality error.

d. An interface defect.

e. A missing command error.

A-1: e. A missing command error. (FL 1.2.3) (LO 1.1.5) (LO 1 Q-46)


Q-2. Which of the following is test reporting task? Select all that apply.

a. Create a Test Summary Report.

b. Track defects.

c. Analyze defects.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-2: d. All of the above. (FL 1.4.2) ( LO1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-47)


Q-3. You want to identify the primary elements that influence a software product’s risk level. What should be considered? Select all that apply.

a. The rate of defect discovery.

b. The size of the software product in terms of single lines of code.

c. The number of known defects.

d. The expertise of test team members in terms of specification-based and structural testing.

e. The percentage of tests failed.

A-3: a. The rate of defect discovery. and c. The number of known defects. (FL 1.2.1) (LO 1.1.3) (LO 1 Q-48)


Q-4. Report anomalies as incidents is a task of what test activity? Select all that apply.

a. Test planning.

b. Test control.

c. Test analysis.

d. Test design.

e. Test implementation.

f. Test execution.

A-4: f. Test execution. (FL 1.4.2) (LO1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-49)


Q-5. Correcting code is a step of which of the following processes? Select all that apply.

a. Testing.

b. Debugging.

c. Both testing and debugging.

A-5: b. Debugging. (FL 1.1.2) (LO 1.2.3) (LO 1 Q-50)


Q-6. The tasks of a test leader do not include which of the following?

a. Planning and coordinating a test strategy.

b. Planning the implementation of the test environment.

c. Writing a test summary report.

d. Reviewing the test plan.

A-6: d. Reviewing the test plan. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (L) 3 Q-46)


Q-7. Which of the following is not included in the cost of a review.?

A. Process improvement.

B. Metrics analysis.

C. Tool support.

D. Rework.

A-7: c. Tool support. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.2.1) (LO 3 Q-47)


Q-8. Which of the following are defects identified by control flow analysis?

A. Code that can’t be executed due to incorrect logic.

B. Extremely complex coding structures.

C. Variable that are redefined before the system uses their original values.

D. All of the above.

E. None of the above.

A-8: a. Code that can’t be executed due to incorrect logic. and b. Extremely complex coding structures. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.3.3) (LO 3 Q-48)


Q-9. ________________identifies memory leaks and unassigned pointers.

a. Dynamic analysis.

b. Static analysis tool.

c. Static analysis.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-9: a. Dynamic analysis. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.1.3) (LO 3 Q-49)


Q-10. Which of the following is a true statement about automated static analysis?

a. The technique identifies defects, but not failures.

b. The technique is only used by developers.

c. The technique requires the compilation of code.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-10: a. The technique identifies defects, but not failures. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.1.2) (LO 3 Q-50)


Q-11. Risk relates to which of the following? Select all that apply.

a. Work breakdown structure.

b. Technology maturity.

c. Performance against plan.

d. The integrated master schedule.

e. Design maturity.

A-11: b. Technology maturity. c. Performance against plan. and e. Design maturity. (FL 5.5.1) (LO 5.5.1) (LO 5 Q-46)

Q-12. Identify a key element of risk management. Select all that apply.

a. Risk transfer.

b. Risk mitigation.

c. Risk resumption.

d. Risk avoidance.

e. Risk deference.

A-12: a. Risk transfer. b. Risk mitigation. and d. Risk avoidance. (FL 5.5.1) (LO 5.5.1) (LO 5 Q-47)

Q-13. Which of the following is a factor that should influence a risk management approach? Select all that apply.

a. The project’s software development life cycle model.

b. Statutory requirements.

c. Organizational policies.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-13: d. All of the above. (FL 5.5.1) (LO 5.5.1) (LO 5 Q-48)

Q-14. Which of the following is a project risk? Select all that apply.

a. The delivery of failure-prone software.

b. Ill-defined requirements specifications.

c. Delay in data conversion.

d. The failure of a software product to adhere to non-functional requirements.

e. Poorly designed program code.

A-14: b. Ill-defined requirements specifications. c. Delay in data conversion. and e. Poorly designed program code.

(FL 5.5.3) (LO 5.5.4) (LO 5 Q-49)

Q-15. What is a project risk? Select all that apply.

a. The potential failure of a system.

b. The inability to develop a product on-time.

c. Intra-organizational conflict due to conflicting product requirements.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-15: b. The inability to develop a product on-time. and c. Intra-organizational conflict due to conflicting product requirements. (FL 5.5.2) (LO 5.5.4) (LO 5 Q-50)


Q-16. Name a special consideration for a test execution tool?

a. To create test scripts the test tool must capture data or a tester’s key strokes.

b. Testers who operate a test tool must possess special skills needed to create test scripts to execute test objects.

c. For some test approaches, inputs for each test must be created and stored.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: b. Testers who operate a test tool must possess special skills needed to create test scripts to execute test objects. (FL 6.1.3) (LO 6.2.2) (LO 6 Q-46)


Q-17. Name a special consideration for a static analysis tool?

a. Warning messages can preclude the translation of code to an executable program.

b. To counter warning messages the tool generates, coding standards are enforced.

c. Coding standards are enforced by the test tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: c. Coding standards are enforced by the test tool. (FL 6.1.3) (LO 6.2.2) (LO 6 Q-47)

Q-18. The main principles for introducing a tool into an organization are what?

A. Evaluate the feasibility of acquiring a tool based on existing technology.

B. Evaluate the test team’s training and coaching.

C. Evaluate a vendor’s ability to provide training and tool support.

D. All of the above.

E. None of the above.

A-18: a. Evaluate the feasibility of acquiring a tool based on existing technology. and c. Evaluate a vendor’s ability to provide training and tool support. (FL 6.2.1) (LO 6.3.1)

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