ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quizzes

Quiz No. 1

Syllabus 2018

ASTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level: Quiz No. 1

QUESTIONS

Q-1. Which of the following is an example of a Test Planning phase activity of a test effort? Select all that apply.

a. Specify test environment requirements.

b. Create test schedule.

c. Review test basis to identify test conditions.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-2. What statement is incorrect in regards to risk and test planning? Select all that apply.

a. Project risk is synonymous with planning risk.

b. Product risk includes that risk that results from undisclosed defects.

c. Testing is a means to mitigate project risk.


Q-3. Which of the following is a characteristic of the medium level of tester independence? Select all that apply.

a. Author bias is absent.

b. Groupthink is absent.

c. Developer and tester report to development manager.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-4. Which of the following is an accurate statement in regards to general testing objectives? Select all that apply.

a. Verify a software product satisfies documented requirements.

b. Identify failures so defects can be removed, which will increase software quality.

c. Verify the software development and testing processes.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-5. Which of the following is a description of the root cause of a defect? Select all that apply.

a. An undesirable event or effect.

b. The underlying cause of an undesirable event or effect.

c. That which should be eliminated to prevent human mistakes.

d. That which should be eliminated to prevent hardware damage.


Q-6. Which of the following can be examined by a static analysis technique?

a. Unit tests.

b. Test automation design documents.

c. User guides.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-7. What is the purpose of a static quality control technique?

a. The automated analysis of documents.

b. The manual examination of source code.

d. The automated examination of source code.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-8. Which of the following is a restriction when applying static analysis techniques?

a. The work product must be in an analyzable, structured form.

b. The work product must be in its final form.

c. The work product must be completed early in the software development life cycle.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-9. A review refers to_________________.

a. The automated examination of a software artifact in relation to an organizational standard.

b. The manual examination of a software artifact in relation to an organizational standard.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.


Q-10. Static analysis tools can identify suspicious aspects of code by means of_____________________.

A. Software models.

B. Metrics.

C. Rule sets.

D. All of the above.

E. None of the above.


Q-11. What is the significance of a test script? Select all that apply.

a. The test script determines what to test, the effort that will be expended to do so.

b. The test script determines the test types that will be conducted.

c. The test script stipulates the actions that a test tool performs to execute tests.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-12. Identify the benefits of independent testing. Select all that apply.

a. An independent tester can benefit from creator bias, which means he can receive credit for the quality of the work product under test.

b. An independent tester views the software under test without preconceived notions.

c. An independent tester maintains a positive relationship with the development team in that he assumes the work product will be of high quality until the testing effort proves it not to be.

d. An independent tester has a vested interest in affirming the assumptions of a developer regarding software under test.

e. An independent tester is typically well-trained and able to assume the developer’s quality assurance responsibilities.


Q-13. What does project risk measure? Select all that apply.

a. The probability an event will occur that results in detrimental consequences.

b. The uncertainty of accomplishing project performance objectives within specified cost, schedule and performance constraints.

c. The probability an event will have a positive outcome.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-14. Which of the following should be considered when creating a test team? Select all that apply.

a. The characteristics of the software under test.

b. The project’s characteristics.

c. The test effort’s risk assessment.

d. The qualifications of team members.

e. The test effort’s complexity.


Q-15. What are the tasks of a test leader? Select all that apply.

a. Controls testing activities.

b. Selects the tests to automate.

c. Performs tasks delegated by project management.

d. Acquires test data.

e. Collects performance metrics.


Q-16. Which of the following is a valid risk of test tool support?

a. Slow response by vendor to query about operational concern.

b. Increase in the cost of executing the same tests on a repeated basis.

c. Decrease in the accuracy and reliability of test results.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-17. What is the purpose of a pilot project to introduce a test tool?

a. Define standards for the use, management, storage and maintenance of file naming conventions and the storage of the tool’s elements.

b. Identify the possible benefits of a tool to the test organization.

c. Configure the test tool so it will gauge the desired test metrics.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

Q-18. Which of the following is a restriction related to a test execution tool?

a. The tool may generate a large volume of warning messages when analyzing code.

b. A tester must have knowledge of a certain scripting language to create test data.

c. The process of creating test scripts by capturing data and the key strokes of a tester when he executes a test with a manual process does not scale well.

e. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-19. Under what circumstance is the application life cycle management tool used?

a. Identify undefined or “to be defined” requirements.

b. Manage requirements, tests, test plans, tasks, bugs and issues in one environment, with complete traceability from inception to completion.

c. Identify and control configuration items by assigning a version number to each element of a system.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.


Q-20. When using a __________, test inputs are stored in a spreadsheet that’s read by a test script.

a. Test execution tool.

b. Test management tool.

c. Static analysis tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Q-1. Which of the following is an example of a Test Planning phase activity of a test effort? Select all that apply.

a. Specify test environment requirements.

b. Create test schedule.

c. Review test basis to identify test conditions.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-1: b. Create test schedule. (FL 1.4.2) ( FL 1.1.5)

Q-2. What statement is incorrect in regards to risk and test planning? Select all that apply.

a. Project risk is synonymous with planning risk.

b. Product risk includes that risk that results from undisclosed defects.

c. Testing is a means to mitigate project risk.

A-2: b. Product risk includes that risk that results from undisclosed defects. and c. Testing is a means to mitigate project risk.

(FL 1.4.2) (LO 1.4.1) (LO 1 Q-2)


Q-3. Which of the following is a characteristic of the medium level of tester independence? Select all that apply.

a. Author bias is absent.

b. Groupthink is absent.

c. Developer and tester report to development manager.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-3: a. Author bias is absent. and b. Groupthink is absent. (FL 1.5.2) (LO 1.5.3) (LO 1 Q-3 )

Q-4. Which of the following is an accurate statement in regards to general testing objectives? Select all that apply.

a. Verify a software product satisfies documented requirements.

b. Identify failures so defects can be removed, which will increase software quality.

c. Verify the software development and testing processes.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-4: a. Verify a software product satisfies documented requirements and b. Identify failures so defects can be removed, which will increase software quality. (FL 1.1.1) (LO 1.2.1) (LO 1 Q-4)


Q-5. Which of the following is a description of the root cause of a defect? Select all that apply.

a. An undesirable event or effect.

b. The underlying cause of an undesirable event or effect.

c. That which should be eliminated to prevent human mistakes.

d. That which should be eliminated to prevent hardware damage.

A-5: b. The underlying cause of an undesirable event or effect, c. That which should be eliminated to prevent human mistakes, and d. That which should be eliminated to prevent hardware damage. (FL 1.2.4) (LO 1.1.2) (LO 1 Q-5)


Q-6. Which of the following can be examined by a static analysis technique?

a. Unit tests.

b. Test automation design documents.

c. User guides.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-6: d. All of the above. (FL 3.1.1) (LO 3.1.1) (LO 3 Q-1)


Q-7. What is the purpose of a static quality control technique?

a. The automated analysis of documents.

b. The manual examination of source code.

c The automated examination of source code.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-7: D. All of the above. (FL 3.1.2) (LO 3.1.1) ( LO 3 Q-2)

Q-8. Which of the following is a restriction when applying static analysis techniques?

a. The work product must be in an analyzable, structured form.

b. The work product must be in its final form.

c. The work product must be completed early in the software development life cycle.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-8: a. The work product must be in an analyzable, structured form. (FL 3.1.3) (LO 3.2.2) (LO 3 Q-3)


Q-9. A review refers to_________________.

a. The automated examination of a software artifact in relation to an organizational standard.

b The manual examination of a software artifact in relation to an organizational standard.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

A-9: b. The manual examination of a software artifact in relation to an organization standard. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.1.1) (LO 3 Q-4)


Q-10. Static analysis tools can identify suspicious aspects of code by means of_____________________.

a. Software models.

b. Metrics.

c. Rule sets.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-10: b. Metrics. (FL 3.2.1) (LO 3.3.2) (LO 3 Q-5)


Q-11. What is the significance of a test script? Select all that apply.

a. The test script determines what to test, the effort that will be expended to do so.

b. The test script determines the test types that will be conducted.

c. The test script stipulates the actions that a test tool performs to execute tests.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-11: c. The test script stipulates the actions that a test tool performs to execute tests. (FL 6.1.1) (LO 5.2.4) (LO 5 Q-1 )


Q-12. Identify the benefits of independent testing. Select all that apply.

a. An independent tester can benefit from creator bias, which means he can receive credit for the quality of the work product under test.

b. An independent tester views the software under test without preconceived notions.

c. An independent tester maintains a positive relationship with the development team in that he assumes the work product will be of high quality until the testing effort proves it not to be.

d. An independent tester has a vested interest in affirming the assumptions of a developer regarding software under test.

e. An independent tester is typically well-trained and able to assume the developer’s quality assurance responsibilities.

A-12: b. An independent tester views the software under test without preconceived notions. (FL 5.1.1) (LO 5.1.2) (LO 5 Q-2)

Q-13. What does project risk measure? Select all that apply.

a. The probability an event will occur that results in detrimental consequences.

b. The uncertainty of accomplishing project performance objectives within specified cost, schedule and performance constraints.

c. The probability an event will have a positive outcome.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-13: b. The uncertainty of accomplishing project performance objectives within specified cost, schedule and performance constraints.

(FL 5.5.2) ( LO 5.5.1) (LO 5 Q-3)

Q-14. Which of the following should be considered when creating a test team? Select all that apply.

a. The characteristics of the software under test.

b. The project’s characteristics.

c. The test effort’s risk assessment.

d. The qualifications of team members.

e. The test effort’s complexity.

A-14: b. The project’s characteristics. and d. The qualifications of team members. (FL 5.1.2) ( LO 5.1.3) (LO 5 Q-14)


Q-15. What are the tasks of a test leader? Select all that apply.

a. Controls testing activities.

b. Selects the tests to automate.

c. Performs tasks delegated by project management.

d. Acquires test data.

e. Collects performance metrics.

A-15: a. Controls testing activities and b. Selects the tests to automate. (FL 5.1.2) (LO 5.1.4) (LO 5 Q-5)


Q-16. Which of the following is a valid risk of test tools support?

a. Slow response by vendor to query about operational concern.

b. Increase in the cost of executing the same tests on a repeated basis.

c. Decrease in the accuracy and reliability of test results.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-16: a. Slow response by vendor to query about operational concern. (FL 6.1.2) (FL 6.1.2) (FL 6 Q1)


Q-17. What is the purpose of a pilot project to introduce a test tool?

a. Define standards for the use, management, storage and maintenance of file naming conventions and the storage of the tool’s elements.

b. Identify the possible benefits of a tool to the test organization.

c. Configure the test tool so it will gauge the desired test metrics.

e. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-17: a. Define standards for the use, management, storage and maintenance of file naming conventions and the storage of the tool’s elements. and c. Configure the test tool so it will gauge the desired test metrics. (FL 6.2.2) (FL 6.2.2 ) (FL 6 Q-2)


Q-18. Which of the following is a restriction related to a test execution tool?

A. The tool may generate a large volume of warning messages when analyzing code. (F)

B. A tester must have knowledge of a certain scripting language to create test data. (F)

C. The process of creating test scripts by capturing data and the key strokes of a tester when he executes a test with a manual process does not scale well. (T)

D. All of the above.

E. None of the above.

A-18: c. The process of creating test scripts by capturing data and the key strokes of a tester when he executes a test with a manual process does not scale well. (FL 6.1.3) (FL 6 Q-3)

Q-19. Under what circumstance is the Application Life Cycle Management Tool used?

a. Identify undefined or “to be defined” requirements.

b. Manage requirements, tests, plans, tasks, bugs and issues in one environment, with complete traceability from inception to completion.

c. Identify and control configuration items by assigning a version number to each element of a system.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-19: b. Manage requirements, tests, plans, tasks, bugs and issues in one environment, with complete traceability from inception to completion. (FL 6.1.3) (FL 6 Q-3)

Q-20. When using a __________, test inputs are stored in a spreadsheet that’s read by a test script.

a. Test execution tool.

b. Test management tool.

c. Static analysis tool.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

A-20: a. Test execution tool. (FL 6.1.3) (FL 6 Q-20)

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